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Originally Posted by JustifiedByFaith
Dear Abogado del Diablo,
I had a hunch that was where you were going with the opening question.
It appears you may have "other books" you feel are divine? Could you share the names of those books or writtings to me?
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Nothing "divine" in the sense I think you mean.
Whether you believe every book of the Bible is the inspired word of God is entirely your prerogative. I've just never understood why
this particular passage is cited whenever someone makes such a claim. It seems like such a
non sequitor given that we don't know what the author was referring to as "Scripture", given the New Testament was still being written (including, indeed, this very epistle) it always seemed far more reasonable to assume he was talking about Jewish "Scripture."
I'm not pushing some other "scripture" here. Just curious what this passage has to do with somehow supporting the divine inspiration of the books of the N.T.That's all.