The Bible is pretty clear where homosexuality is concerned

What does it mean?

As I see it we are not talking ultra orthodox right? (Would they read this litterally)

But I am wondering the orthodox view. The religions (Christians/Muslims) that used your (Jewish) texts as a starting point have had most adherents taking these literally... And many here in the US still do today.

 

Orthodox Judaism is pretty united on this -- even for things listed as deserving a death penalty, we cannot carry out such a penalty now. And even if we could, the legal system is so complex that it is unlikely that anyone would be found guilty forcing the courts to carry out the penalty.

 

Are you indicating the law of the land is the only thing stopping you? That if Israel was a religious state run as orthodoxy would wish they would make judgement and sentencing based on a literal reading of leviticus?

 

Judaism applies laws through a process detailed in the oral law. The Talmud relates that a court which executed one person in 7 years was considered cruel and harsh. So as stated, even acts which are punishable by death, generally aren't punished by death.

 

So how are they judged, punished in life? What is the orthodox policy on homosexuality, adultery...commandment that indicate death requirement?

 

We don't have a religious court system currently that deals with criminal cases. There are some ad hoc courts that deal with business or financial disputes and a couple of other topics, but not sin issues. We rely on faith that if something deserves punishment under divine law, the divine takes care of it.

 

So not even a lecture?

 

People might lecture but that isn't a formalized or codified punitive option.

 

Based on all that I have read within Christian and Judaic texts (7 different versions of The Bible, the Tanakh, various Talmudic texts and extent texts associated with Christianity and Gnostic faith traditions) it is exceedingly clear that neither Christian scriptures nor Judeic scriptures condone any kind of homosexual behavior and or union. If we are to follow much of the traditional views of the early church in deriving everyday practice from biblical teachings, then we would likely need to assume that a lack of support for such behaviour paired with strict and obvious punishments having been prescribed for committing such acts would ammount to a kind of prohibition in both faiths.

It is important that The Bible does not ever define a marriage as one man and one woman. A man (who is defined as being supernaturally superior to a woman) may take as many wives as he can effectively take care of as well as have full breeding rights to any slaves he possesses. This is very similar to other legal definitions in that region. It later becomes the basis for Islamic codes concerning marriage.

Today there are plenty of Christians and Jews who do not accept these laws and who are supporting LGBTQ+ rights and causes. These people are clearly disregarding ancient beliefs and the scriptures of their sacred texts. They are (and this is key) rejecting their own religion's laws for the higher law of humanity. They are actively strengthening filial bonds by promoting acceptance and compassion.

 

Lol, pretty solid ground there...rape is rape.