we accept the evidence that we don't know who the authors of Scripture are, we accept that we don't know how many there were, we accept that the texts were edited and redacted ... because that's what the evidence indicates.
Your claims for what those indicators say however, rests on your own authority. If I was to say 'OK', it would be to accept your authority on the matter, not the irrefutable argument of the evidence.
Uh, Thomas, you haven't cited any evidence at all. Your statement about "what the evidence indicates" actually means "
Other people have made arguments about the evidence, which I don't bother to reproduce here for anyone's examination, because I take their word for it."
It is a total lie to say that I have ever claimed anything "on [my] own authority." Not once have I said "Believe this because I say so" or anything remotely like that. I say things like: HERE is a primary source, which says "THIS", and
in my opinion THIS implies THAT, and the reason I think so is BECAUSE... And you don't grapple with the primary evidence or any reasoned arguments about it, because you feel that there are professionals to do that, and in case of disagreements among them, you accept those from the Catholic(TM) Tradition because that is a brand-name you trust (which carries zero weight, of course, with those who do not share your trust). The argument-from-authority style is so ingrained in you that you have trouble even understanding that other people don't argue in that way: you think that I "must" be claiming to be an authority, otherwise how would I dare to express an opinion?
But we do [grapple with multiple dates of composition] ... so no problem there.
No, you really don't; and by "you" I mean Christian scholars in general. It is common to make inferences about date, derived from one particular passage-- and then to extrapolate this to the entire book. That leap of logic is so common that it has become quite a pet peeve of mine.
Meanwhile, there's Q, and proto-Mark, and Alt-this, and F-that ... and I think, there's not a single scrap of evidence for these sources
Then you think wrongly. I have cited for you the primary evidence for "Q", for example: Papias gives our earliest description of the gospels, and what he calls "Matthew" sounds very much like "Q", and very little like the book now found in the canon; this was noted
after "Q" had been hypothesized on quite independent internal-textual grounds, which is a phenomenon called "consilience" of evidence, considered in all branches of science to be a strong confirmation of the soundness of a hypothesis; back-translation of "Q" indicates word-play in an underlying Aramaic-mixed-with-Hebrew, again matching what Papias and other sources say about Matthew being written in Hebrew first; the existence of "Thomas" confirms that standalone "sayings" gospels was indeed an existing genre. The "Acts of Barnabas" mentions "the two" books of Matthew circulated on Cyprus, so I have suggested before, and mention here again in case someone with power to follow through is reading, that Cyprus is a good place to search for
a manuscript of standalone "Q", which I suppose is the only thing you would ever accept as a "scrap" of evidence in this case (I doubt you would take that tack in other cases: there are numerous ancient books which we do not have, but which we hear about and got some scattered quotes and info from later authors-- are you the type to deny their existence until you see them?)
I believe what my tradition says because it doesn't go into speculation.
LOL!
I think your problem is oral tradition. There's not a point when oral stops, and then the written begins, there's an interface, but oral tradition really tosses a fairly hefty spanner into the works.
??? I don't have a problem with that. I have talked about this before: for example, that the "Logos" hymn at the opening of "John" was still oral, not written, c. 150 but nonetheless is likely to be well-preserved from earlier (it is not implausible that it is
verbatim the hymn referred to by Pliny; liturgical pieces are quite conservatively passed down). But a lot of Christian scholars want to use it as a cure-all: the "F" material in Matthew is not written down from an earlier oral source; it was
invented from scratch, and if you want to go through my primary evidentiary reasons for claiming that, we can do so.
The point I was making is that Luke had long been regarded as unreliable, for a number of supposed 'inaccuracies' which subsequently were discovered to be quite accurate
You don't tell me what you are talking about. You referred to the dispute over the nativity accounts (whether "Luke" was worse than or better than "Matthew" for the date) but you don't give any other examples of accusations against Luke's accuracy: are you dredging up some old 19th-century arch-skeptic of the "Troy never existed" stripe?
The only actual proven inaccuracy in "Luke" that I know of is the title "procurator" of Judea for Pontius Pilate, whose actual title was "prefect" of Judea as the Caesarea dedicatory inscription tells us: a "prefect" was generally like a "mayor and police chief" of a large city and surrounding country, like the prefect of Damascus and prefect of Antioch, answerable to a provincial governor (governor of Syria in all these cases) and through him to the Senate, or directly to the Senate, as the prefect of Rome; the title was changed under Caligula, a "procurator" reporting directly to the Emperor in person. This indicates that the author of "Luke" did not live in Judea in the 20's and 30's, but we already knew that; as "errors" go, it is small potatoes.
and the ill-informed speculations of scholars is actually unreliable.
The fallibility of recent humans is not exactly a good argument in favor of the reliability of ancient humans. The ancients were worse, you know (and if you don't know that, I can go through some primary evidentiary bases for that claim).
No, I'm talking about another census ... as you point out, the ones we know don't fit the timeline ... so I'm saying there may well have been another, that does.
You think the Romans OVERTHREW HEROD'S KINGDOM, and nobody who chronicles the career of Herod bothers to mention such an event?
Come on. The census was a big deal. In the
Acts of Augustus, which we have good reason to believe was written by Augustus himself (some of the copies are almost certainly "autographs" at least in part: that is, it would be customary for the Emperor to symbolically chisel a first-stroke or two, before the professionals took over the carving; similarly a chisel-stroke or two in the Caesarea inscription is surely from the hand of Pilate himself), the repeated successful completion of a comprehensive census is described in loving detail as one of the administrative feats of which the Emperor was most proud. The last two were in 9-8 BC and 6-7 AD, for which reason a 14-year cycle became customary (although the prior censuses under Augustus had not been at that interval). It is entirely clear that the census was of the provinces, not of tributary kingdoms: internal fiscal and administrative autonomy was what "kingship"
meant; any claim that the Romans invaded Herod's territory with a swarm of troops and bureaucrats in 9-8 BC to take over all his taxation revenue is a claim that Herod was
removed as king in that year, which we know is not true. And even if we hypothesize such an event, it is obviously not the event "Luke" is talking about: governor
Kurenios of Syria is obviously Quirinus, the governor during the FAMOUS census of 6-7 AD (when Judea's independence
was definitively overthrown, in the teeth of a massive revolt); in 9-8 BC, the governor of Syria was Varus (later famous for losing legions, and any hope of conquering Germany, in the Battle of Teutoberg Forest) while Quirinus was serving as prefect of Antioch.
I have seen this special pleading before: and if you'll pardon me saying so, it is really silly. Josh McDowell's "Evidence that Demands a Verdict" goes on to say that maybe, by referring to Quirinus as "governor of Syria", Luke is really meaning that the prefect of Antioch was so important in Syria that he was practically like the governor; well, that's seriously missing the point. Ancient authors date a story by mentioning the ruler
of the place where the story takes place: a story set in the US in 1969 might start out "Early in the Nixon Administration..." but wouldn't start out by saying "This was when Trudeau was Prime Minister of Canada..." if there isn't a single Canadian character in the story and Canada never comes up again, and certainly wouldn't name the mayor of Toronto, however important in Canadian politics, if Canadians have nothing to do with it; Luke is mentioning the governor of Syria because
the place where the story is taking place was being subjected to the province of Syria at the time, otherwise he would have no reason to bring Syria into it. It's like this: "Matthew" says Jesus was born during World War One, during the rule of Kaiser Wilhelm; "Luke" says he was born in the death-camp at Auschwitz, during the rule of Hitler. You are pleading: that doesn't mean the two contradict; maybe there was ANOTHER Holocaust thirty years earlier, that just didn't get recorded (and McDowell is saying, well, Hitler was after all a soldier in the German Army during WW I).
No. The opposition of heaven/earth, body/soul was there long before.
Which is not at all the "dualism" of an evil fake "creator" vs. the Most High God that is the subject of the controversy here.
I'm saying there are disputes evident in the texts which would turn up later in gnosticism in the 2nd century
I am saying
this particular text, which is the only one where this particular dispute comes up, is obviously later than the origin of the dispute itself, which was just
not where the 1st-century lines of argument were.
I'd look a bit silly abandoning my faith on the strength of a claim by a scholar that was later shown to be an erroneous interpretation of the data.
How silly would you look
basing your faith on a similar basis?
We're not just sitting on our arses. Some of the leading lights in text and Scripture criticism are believing Christians.
Most people who are not inclined to Christianity are not inclined to spend a lot of time looking at those books; it is not surprising that Christians are over-represented among the students of the subject. How much bias this introduces into their interpretations is highly variable; my approach is to
not care, even slightly who the source is for a particular interpretation, but to look at the evidence itself, and see whether the interpretation looks like special pleading. The "census" business above is a classic example of the kind of interpretation which is found very widely in the literature, which I give zero respect to because it is so obviously in the teeth of the facts; the "two genealogies" is another topic where interpretations that are just downright silly are widespread.
Oh rubbish, Bob — it's an abstract idea that stands on empirical data
So is the law of gravity: but to say that the "law of gravity"
became an apple is just silly.
Yes, the author of the gospel was a Galilean
I know of no evidence whatsoever favoring a Galilean origin for
any of the hands involved in the authorship of that gospel. The firsthand source for the Passion Narrative appears to be a native of Jerusalem. The redactor of that Narrative and the author of the Discourses material is from Asia Minor. The "Signs" is a grab-bag, that has probably come down to us through the medium of a lot hands; if the Galilean fisherman has anything to do with any of the book, that is the piece of it where I would look-- but I haven't seen anything making a positive case for that.