Compilation of arguments against the existence of Jesus

Religions are nations at war with each other. The warring nations do not let any one to be neutral.
Christianity didn't 'go to war' for a 1,000 years, so that's flat wrong.

Nor does anything in the New Testament Jesus teachings validate war. Christ taught forgiveness. Buddhism teaches non-violence.

Nations go to war with nations, and misuse religion to validate their claims.
 
I don't see any reason to take any use of Bayes' Theorem seriously, unless it defines a probability space composed of a sample space, a sigma-algebra of events, and a probability measure on those events, as those are defined in probability theory. Those are the only conditions in which the theorem has been proved.
 
Something funny just happened for me. For the last week or two I've been analyzing the logical fallacies in Richard Carrier's book "On the Historicity of Jesus." Just now I jumped ahead to the conclusion, and I actually agree with what it says about how we should read the gospel stories and related writings: as stories rather than history.
 
I said that I think we should read the gospel stories and related writings: as stories rather than history, but that could be misunderstood. I think that we should read them as stories rather than what actually happened, because there’s no way of knowing how much of them actually happened. I also think that we should read everything called “history” and “mythicism” the same way.
 
I also think that we should read everything called “history” and “mythicism” the same way.
That ewon't be correct. History can be checked from various sources and is supported by archaeology. Myths may describe what people were going through.
Scriptures, books written for evangelical purposes are not myths, they are concoctions. I see a difference between the two.
 
That ewon't be correct. History can be checked from various sources and is supported by archaeology. Myths may describe what people were going through.
Scriptures, books written for evangelical purposes are not myths, they are concoctions. I see a difference between the two.
All sources were written for propaganda purposes.
 
I don't see any reason to take any use of Bayes' Theorem seriously, unless it defines a probability space composed of a sample space, a sigma-algebra of events, and a probability measure on those events, as those are defined in probability theory. Those are the only conditions in which the theorem has been proved.
I guess I missed the connection, I'm not sure what the Bayes Theorem proves or supports in a theological context?
 
I said that I think we should read the gospel stories and related writings: as stories rather than history, but that could be misunderstood.
I think a fundamental ewrror is reading Scripture in the context of today's categories, eg history, myth, and so on.

The ancients were not subject to such categories, and as such their biographies – as the Gospels in a broad sense are – combine elements from history, geography, sociology, mythology and so on, they'll use whatever is most appropriate to make their point.

And they were read in that light by the audience they were addressing.

It's only now we fall into error by making certain erroneous assumptions: If it's not history as we currently define it, it's a story ... the error clearly being, as someone said before a 'baby out with the bathwater' error.

To read and understand Scripture, you first have to know how to read and understand Scripture.

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From the religious point of view, the religious educational faculties are very remiss at not doing this. It was hinted at on my Graduate course, but only recently, in reading specific writers, have I come to understnd it better.

From the secular point of view, the same criticism applies. The religious believe it,m because they believe it. The secular don't believe it, because they don't.

But both, if pushed to explain why, whill most likely fall back on erroneous assumptions.

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There's a lot of geography in Mark's gospel that's wrong. He'd never been to the places he was writing about. But Jesus had, and that's the point – mark could have located his 'story' in some generic, fictional place, as writers do. But he can't, because he's writing about someone who lived in a specific place, at a specific time.

Luke, apart from his glaring errors in the nativity account, drops a few little details into his story which historians cherish as insights into sociopolitical conditions in 1st century Judea.

John clearly knew the Temple in Jerusalem before its destruction, as archaeology has discovered the pool beside which Jesus performed a miracle, a pool with was long assumed not to have existed.

So to say it's not history is not quite correct, as there's a lot of history there.

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The point is, even the argument is false. The Gospels, like Paul's letters, are theology.

So if Mark is writing a story about an apocalyptic prophet who's not just another apocalyptic prophet, but actually the Messiah, and something even more than that. But why then does his story make such a point about the immanent return of the Risen Savour, when at the time of writing, some 40 years after the event ... it hasn't happened?

Why, if concocting a story about Jesus, did the writers simply pass over that bit without comment ... ?
 
Some of the confidence of people thinking that Jesus did not exist might be a result of thinking that a low probability for his existence has been proven mathematically, in a range of near zero to no more than 1/3. If I'm understanding correctly, that was largely how the idea of his nonexistence was revived after a long period of neglect. A book was written claiming to use a mathematically proven theorem called Bayes' Theorem. A fallacy in that is that, like in all other practical applications, what the book is calling "Bayes' Theorem" is not actually the theorem that has been proven. It's an algebraic rearrangement of a definition in probability theory which is only defined within something called a "probability space," with something called a "sigma algebra." It doesn't actually have anything to do with Bayes or the theorem with his name on it. Incidentally, he isn't actually the one who proved the theorem.
 
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I've salvaged something from the train wreck in the book "On the Historicity of Jesus": What is falsely called "Bayesian Theorem" (not discovered or invented by Bayes, no more a theorem than d = vt), can be used to improve reasoning processes, if it's used for that purpose. Only, that was already well known.
 
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