I am using Matt Baker / UsefulCharts as a credentialed educational source for a historical-method claim about Moses, not as peer review and not as proof of a supernatural claim.
Fair enough. Baker draws on scholarship and presents their materials in an accessible manner.
I am also taking the idea that Moses is “more of a legendary figure than a historical one” directly from Matt Baker himself at about 17:43 in the video.
I
generally agree with that, although I'm not sure 'the Historical Method' would rather say that Moses is
entirely a legendary figure?
The article I am looking at specifically is “Religion and schizophrenia.” It says that religious experiences often involve auditory or visual phenomena and that these may be similar to hallucinations and delusions in schizophrenia.
This is inevitable when the same 'wiring loom' is involved.
As you point out, the too-easy but fallacious argument is that because psychological states can manifest as auditory or visual hallucinations, then all accounts of auditory or visual events are therefore hallucinations.
How much does the research allow for the possibility of the metanormal?
I can quite understand how a metanormal event can trigger an 'overwhelming' of the psyche, resulting in all manner of reactions; feinting, fits, seizures. Then again, they can also produce a range of responses to "Oh, they're in a world of their own" to "disassociative behaviours".
My concern is that the source being cited, The Role of Psychotic Disorders in Religious History Considered, is mainly a retrospective neuropsychiatric analysis of specific figures such as Abraham, Moses, Jesus, and Paul.
And it will find as it expects to find, I'm sure ... but this cannot, or should not, rule out a metanormal alternative.
As the research cannot analyse such figures as Abraham, Moses, Jesus, and Paul other than with the tools and methods of their own disciplines, surely the outcome is a foregone conclusion?
Psychiatryonline says, in its abstract:
"The authors have analyzed the religious figures Abraham, Moses, Jesus, and St. Paul
from a behavioral, neurologic, and neuropsychiatric perspective to determine whether new insights can be achieved about the nature of their revelations. Analysis reveals that these individuals had experiences that resemble those now defined as psychotic symptoms, suggesting that their experiences may have been manifestations of primary or mood disorder-associated psychotic disorders."
I would suggest that analysing any experience from within a given set of parameters can only produce a result consonant with those parameters? This seems like a self-fulfilling prophecy to me?
Are we not just validating our expectations?
I would be interested, if such existed, on a commentary by a skilled Buddhist, say, or a qualified Spiritual Director, who might well produce a response along the lines of "this and this look like pneumatalogical experience, whereas there are there look like psychosomatic reaction".