Adulteration

shawn

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One of the basics of building a better world is found in the scripture
Thou shall not commit adultery.
But we find that this is universally interpreted to mean adultery in a sexual sense.
But this is not exclusively the case.
This can be applied to so many things.
Look at water for example.
Adulterated with many poisons, many added intentionally like fluoride and lithium.
The list is long and the adulterers in our world many.

The role of government should be in insuring the purity laws in food and drink and medicine, etc.
But they seem to be easy to buy resulting in them turning the blind eye to violations.
Resulting in Real harm done, with real victims.

The government seems more interested in applying morality laws with regard to what people choose to consume.
This is a farce and while it appears to be wise it is indeed very foolish a thing to do.
 
You make invalid statements. Go back to your Strong's and check the specific Hebrew term used. "Na'aph" refers exclusively to the act of marital infidelity and does not have the additional meanings of "adding something that disrupts purity". One might be able to make a far-fetched metaphorical argument based on what "adultery" does in a marriage, but that's all it is, not inherent to the specific term actually used in Scripture.
 
The seventh commandment of Ex.20.14 and Deu.5.18 is quoted in Mt.5.27, 19.18, Mk.10.19, Lk.18.20, Rom.13.9 and Jas.2.11, the Greek word moicheia (3430) being used to translate the Hebrew word na'aph (5003). Lev.20.10 uses na'aph to describe something wrong a man does concerning his neighbor's wife.
The context through v.21 lists punishments for various sexual sins.
Thus the meaning of na'aph in v.10 may involve "sexual immorality" (Greek: 4202 porneia) with the neighbor's wife, but it could also mean "unfaithfulness" to his own wife (Greek: a 3428-32 "moich" word), or both.

In Jer.3.6-10 the nations of Israel and Judah are personified, with Israel having committed "na'aph," and having been "put away" and "given a bill of divorcement" by God.

Although sexual sin is involved, the primary thrust of v.8 appears to be Israel's unfaithfulness to God.

Unfaithfulness to God or God's law is involved In every passage in which na'aph is used, and often also unfaithfulness to a spouse.

A comprehensive word-study of na'aph would include a word such as "unfaithfulness" as a primary definition.





Looking at the Jewish culture for example we see that the commandment of not eating a "kid boiled in its mothers milk" is taken "by extension" to mean that one should not eat dairy with meat. Therefore, no lasagna or cheeseburgers for Jew.
The point of this being that such extensions are not unheard of, particularly where the meaning is so obvious.

As Etymology of the word reveals:

The word adultery originates not from "adult", as is commonly thought in English-speaking countries, but from the late latin word for "to alter, corrupt": adulterare.
Adulterare in turn is formed by the combination of ad ("towards"), and alter ("other"), together with the infinitive form are (making it a verb). Thus the meaning is literally "to make other". In contrast, the word "adult" (meaning a person of mature years) comes from another Latin root, adolescere (or adulescere), meaning to grow up or mature: a combination of ad ("towards"), alere ("to nourish", "to grow"), and the inchoative infix sc (meaning "to enter into a state of").
The application of the term to the act appears to arise from the idea that "criminal intercourse with a married woman ... tended to adulterate the issue [children] of an innocent husband ... and to expose him to support and provide for another man's [children]". Thus, the "purity" of the children of a marriage is corrupted, and the inheritance is altered. The law often uses the word "adulterate" to describe contamination of food and the like.

(So mr. dogbrain, why would this word be chosen to translate the concept which we read in the scripture????
If adulteration has nothing to do with it then why is this the case?
Why not chose another word which only refers to infidelity in a sexual sense?)

Jesus taught that indulgence in adulterous thoughts could be just as harmful to the soul as sexual adultery, and it is clear that both carry the same weight of guilt:
But I tell you that anyone who looks at a woman lustfully has already committed adultery with her in his heart.
Why does it not say that such a one has committed sex with the woman if that is what the central idea is, unless the central idea is something else. So all this points clearly to a bigger idea which the obvious example of sexual purity is used to illustrate.
This is used as it is so intimate an issue which will be easy to relate to.
Sexual infidelity is common and always has been so.
Therefore people can relate to it easily.
It causes much harm, therefore it is a good example of the principle of breaking one's word, violating covenants, of bringing in impurity and corruption, etc.

Looking at the Bnai Noach 7 commandments we see that commandment # 7 is : "Requirement to have just laws: Set up a governing body of law (eg Courts)".
But the thing is, only the basics are covered in scripture.
Not an extensive law book which covers in detail all matters of justice, exactly, yet it does so by setting the pace for what justice really is.
From this we get a picture of what justice is, as well as righteousness, from which, by extension, we can formulate laws that reflect such ideals.

If you buy a bottle of water, but it has been adulterated by a careless or devious merchant, do you feel that you have been justly treated?
Or have they been unfaithful in principle to you?
 
Namaste Dogbrain,

I don't believe they are invalid. Strong is a good reference, but not always complete...go back to scripture and see where your word "Na'aph" is used and doesn't always fall within the parameters of that limited definition.

Here they are ALL Adulterers. They say their sins, but they are all adulterers? Now if that only applied to sex outside of the marriage...how is that? Or have they all adulterated their beliefs? All diluted their principles? All poisoned their lives in various ways?

Hosea 7:1 When I would heal Israel, The iniquity of Ephraim is uncovered, And the evil deeds of Samaria, For they deal falsely; The thief enters in, Bandits raid outside, 2 And they do not consider in their hearts That I remember all their wickedness. Now their deeds are all around them; They are before My face. 3 With their wickedness they make the king glad, And the princes with their lies. 4 They are all adulterers, Like an oven heated by the baker Who ceases to stir up the fire From the kneading of the dough until it is leavened.
Or how about here in Jeremiah....exactly how does a Nation commit adultery if the only definition is sex outside of marriage?
Jeremiah 3:7And I said (8799) after she had done (8800) all these things, Turn (8799) thou unto me. But she returned (8804) not. And her treacherous sister Judah saw (8799) it. 8 And I saw (8799), when for all the causes whereby backsliding Israel committed adultery (8765) I had put her away (8765), and given (8799) her a bill of divorce; yet her treacherous (8802) sister Judah feared (8804) not, but went (8799) and played the harlot (8799) also. 9 And it came to pass through the lightness of her whoredom, that she defiled (8799) the land, and committed adultery (8799) with stones and with stocks. 10 And yet for all this her treacherous sister Judah hath not turned (8804) unto me with her whole heart, but feignedly, saith (8803) the LORD. 11 And the LORD said (8799) unto me, The backsliding Israel hath justified (8765) herself more than treacherous (8802) Judah.
Committed adultery with stones and stocks? That sounds like adulterating beliefs, not sex outside of marriage....

There are many other instances where the word "Na'aph" is used that do not refer to sex outside of marriage...but general disregard for the law or disobedience to G!d.

Those ten commandments....if looked at with metaphorical and metaphyscial eye become quite a bit more of a challege. Hence the reason many would prefer to read it literally and not have to hold to a deeper challenge.
 
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Ok, so other than a biblical linguistics exercise is there a point here about health?
 
Ok, so other than a biblical linguistics exercise is there a point here about health?
Namaste Paladin,

lol, I didn't even notice which forum we were in!

To justify...in my belief system we are not punished for our sins but by them. And yes diluting your principles can create health issues.

And even from a literal standpoint with the spread of STD's it also applies?

And lastly as this is not biblical linguistics, but biblical gymnastics, as evidenced by the increased heart rate that some of the participants achieve it could even be aerobic!
 
Adulteration of our food and drink is a health issue Paladin.
That is what I was setting out with in the OP.
Then dogbrain took us for a romp through the semantical brambles after figurative rabbits.
But dogs will do that,:rolleyes: I know mine was really keen on a good rabbit chase.
 
Adulteration of our food and drink is a health issue Paladin.
That is what I was setting out with in the OP.

Okay, WITHIN THE CONTEXT of the specific portion of Exodus in question, illustrate how it was the intent to apply the Commandment to drinking water.

Or are you just proof-texting to suit your personal prejudices?
 
Adulteration of our food and drink is a health issue Paladin.
That is what I was setting out with in the OP.
Then dogbrain took us for a romp through the semantical brambles after figurative rabbits.
But dogs will do that,:rolleyes: I know mine was really keen on a good rabbit chase.


Okay, but why bring the bible into it at all? I mean, I get the whole food and drink thing but to make it biblical? Really?
 
I just thought it an interesting parallel.

dogbrain:
Okay, WITHIN THE CONTEXT of the specific portion of Exodus in question, illustrate how it was the intent to apply the Commandment to drinking water.

Or are you just proof-texting to suit your personal prejudices?
I did that in my previous post.
Besides, what is the context......here are a bunch of laws for you to use as a basis for building a nation.
Also, the context is continued throughout the entire Tenach.
It is up to us to extract its meaning.
Besides, I am saying that it could also mean this, not that it just means this.
 
Okay, WITHIN THE CONTEXT of the specific portion of Exodus in question, illustrate how it was the intent to apply the Commandment to drinking water.

Or are you just proof-texting to suit your personal prejudices?
Oh come on now.... shawn made a statement, you called it invalid due to the word used. We indicated a number of places how the word was used as described and now you we have to prove something from 3,000 years ago??

Truth is we don't know, none of us do hence the discussion. But in regards to probability of possibility it is within the realm that the expanded version of thought could be intended, and more than that it is beneficial...so what personal predjudices are you defending?
Okay, but why bring the bible into it at all? I mean, I get the whole food and drink thing but to make it biblical? Really?
Now as if the bible doesn't have any recomendations on food and drink. It includes a prohibition on various foods that we know today to have issues. A seperation of eating foods for health reasons. Fasting, heck the bible makes attempts to assist our lives in many regards.....whether folks agree or not or what degree they follow it...not that is a completly different story.
 
Just decided to add that the way adultery is refered to in the bible is often through using the figure of speech of metonymy.

Wikipedia clarifies metonymy:
" Metonymy (pronounced /mɨˈtɒnɨmi/) is a figure of speech used in rhetoric in which a thing or concept is not called by its own name, but by the name of something intimately associated with that thing or concept. For instance, "London," as the capital of the United Kingdom, could be used as a metonym for its government.

"The words "metonymy" and "metonym" come from the Greek: μετωνυμία, metōnymía, "a change of name", from μετά, metá, "after, beyond" and -ωνυμία, -ōnymía, a suffix used to name figures of speech, from ὄνῠμα, ónyma or ὄνομα, ónoma, "name."[1] Metonymy may also be instructively contrasted with metaphor. Both figures involve the substitution of one term for another. In metaphor, this substitution is based on similarity, whereas, in metonymy, the substitution is based on contiguity."

Often, as in the quotes in posts above, adultery is used as an example of breaking the covenant.

Outside of the biblical world adultery is also a touchy issue, it seems to me, because many people tend to see it as breaking a covenant with the status quo.

As far as spiritual health is concerned, getting out of conformist marriages that aren't about spiritual devotion could be benificial for some.

While on the topic, let me just say that the context of ancient Israel needs to be kept in mind when considering biblical declarations about adultery. Women were thought of as possessions. In Babylon marriagable women were auctioned off to the highest bidder. Herodotus tells of places where women had to prostitute themselves out till they raised enough money for a dowry. Breaking the vow of marriage was breaking a financial agreement for these people.
 
Now as if the bible doesn't have any recomendations on food and drink. It includes a prohibition on various foods that we know today to have issues. A seperation of eating foods for health reasons. Fasting, heck the bible makes attempts to assist our lives in many regards.....whether folks agree or not or what degree they follow it...not that is a completly different story.


I don't care, I'm eating shrimp, Leviticus be dammed :D
 
I don't care, I'm eating shrimp, Leviticus be dammed :D
Yeah, I've been fond of eathing crabs...living on the Chesapeake Bay, but truth is they are the water and waste treatment facilities of the ocean, they filter the garbage....and then we eat the filter....

there is some reasoning behind them there laws...
 
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