Notes on God in the Gospel of John

I’ve been thinking about the Shekhina, and elohim, and theos, and the logos, and I have a new idea. When John says “theos was the logos,” maybe he’s explaining that the presence of God that the Jews call “elohim” is the same as what the Greeks call “the logos.”
It's worth tinking about, and worth investigating the meaning of those terms and how they correspond. I'd throw in Memra, the Aramaic term meaning "Word" and comparable with the Greek Logos

"From the beginning with wisdom the Memra of the Lord created and perfected the heavens and the earth. (Gen 1.1 Neofiti)

Initially it was a term to avoid anthropomorphic inference, but by the 1st century had taken on anthropomorphic qualities.

I think, then, to get the sense of John you'd have to say something like:
"In the beginning was the Memra, and the Memra was with Elohim, and the Memra was Elohim"
 
1) REGARDING JEWISH LITERATURE THAT DESCRIBES JUDEO-CHRISTIAN BELIEF IN GOD, IN THE LOGOS (SON/MESSIAH), AND IN THE HOLY SPIRIT.
Thomas said: “I'm not aware of any early Jewish text that speaks of God the Father, his Son Jesus and the Holy Spirit. If you can point out the early Jewish texts that speak of a trinity of Father, Son and Holy Spirit, or Father, Messiah (as a divine being) and Holy Spirit, that would be helpful.”


Clear replied: We have already gone over this but I am happy to do so again. Here are some prior quotes:

a)THE JEWS DESCRIBE THEIR BELIEF IN A GOD AND SON IN HEAVEN BEFORE THE WORLD WAS CREATED

In post #14 I gave the example from Jewish Enoch of 300 b.c. where the Prophet says he sees God the Father walking together with his son, the Messiah: “At that place, I saw “he who is of primordial days,” and his head was white like wool, and there was with him another individual whose face was like that of a human being. His countenance was full of grace like that of one among the holy angels.”

Enoch then asks the angel with him regarding who the person was who accompanied the Father and why he was with the Father saying:

“And he answered me and said to me, “This is the Son of Man, to whom belongs righteousness, and with whom righteousness dwells. And he will open all the hidden storerooms; for the Lord of the Spirits has chosen him, and he is destined to be victorious before the Lord of the Spirits in eternal uprightness. This Son of Man whom you have seen is the One who would remove the Kings and the mighty ones from their comfortable seats, and the strong ones from their thrones. He shall loosen the reins of the strong and crush the teeth of the sinners. He shall depose the kings from their thrones and kingdoms. For they do not extol and glorify him, and neither do they obey him, the source of their kingship.” (1st Enoch 46:1-6)

This scripture describes their belief in The Father and his Son, the messiah/Christ in the Heavenly realm.



b)THE JEWS BELIEVED IN THE HOLY SPIRIT OF GOD AS WELL

The Prophet Ezra’s prayer says: “If then I have found favor before you, send the Holy Spirit to me, and I will write everything that has happened in the world from the beginning, the things which were written in your Law, that men may be able to find the path, and that those who wish to live in the last days may live.” Fourth Book of Ezra 14:22;

“1 Let the one who is to be instructed in piety be taught before baptism: knowledge concerning the unbegotten God, understanding concerning the only begotten son, and full assurance concerning the Holy spirit. Hellenistic Synagogal Prayer” (AposCon 7.39.2-4) (While synagogal prayers originate in Jewish Synagogues, they have been adapted by later Christians so it is difficult to separate their “Jewishness” from their “Christianity”)

Another Hellenistic prayer reads: “You have sent forth the Christ to men as a man, being uniquely born God; you have caused the Paraclete to live in us (AposCon 7.38.1-8);

The following texts from the Dead sea Scrolls describing their belief in the spirit, are (obviously) Jewish in origin.

The Jewish Dead Sea Scrolls also witness to us that the ancient temple centric Jews also believed in the Holy Spirit: “I give thanks to You, O LORD, for You have sustained me with your strength, and your Holy Spirit. 4Q429 Frag. 1 Col. 15:6

4Q427 of the Dead Sea Scrolls relates this same Jewish Doctrine: “And I, the instructor, have known you, O my God, by the spirit which you gave me, and I have listened faithfully to your wondrous council by your holy spirit.

In the dead sea scrolls THANKSGIVING PSALMS (Frags. 10, 24, 42 + 4Q427 Frag. 3 Col. 20) describes their belief in the Holy Spirit, saying : “Over the humble His spirit hovers, and He renews the faithful in His strength.

The import of the spirit for the temple centric Jews is described by their textual witnesses saying : "For only through the spirit pervading God’s true society can there be atonement for a man’s ways, all of his iniquities; thus only can he gaze upon the light of life and so be joined to his truth by his Holy Spirit, 1QS, 4Q255-264a, 5Q11 Col. 3

The ancient Jews expressed both their belief in and gratitude for the spirit thusly: “Indeed, You have poured out Your holy spirit upon us, bringing your blessings to us. 4Q504 Col. 5

The texts do not tell us other details but it is obvious that temple-centric Judaism believed in God the Father, and in the Messiah, and in the Holy Spirit since they describe all three in their literature.


Thomas replied: “But as far as I can see, none of the quotes speak of three as a triune of three persons?”

That is correct. Early Judeo-Christian literature describes THEIR version of the trinity and NOT the version adopted by many of the various later Christian movements.

Though the Hebrews believed in a trinity, as their literature demonstrates, their trinity was not a 3=1 trinity (i.e. three individuals as “one” individual), but instead their trinity was still the earlier 3=3 trinity (i.e. three individuals as three individuals). The 3=1 version of the trinity had not yet developed in Judeo-Christian literature at this point in history.




2) THOMAS ASKED FOR EVIDENCE OF THE EARLY JEWISH BELIEF IN GOD, THE SON/MESSIAH, AND THE HOLY GHOST

Thomas said: “But I don't see the texts you offer of Enoch showing the Son of Man present with God at the creation of the world, although I can see that the assumption is not invalid, as the heavens in which they reside are outside the normal time-space we exist in.

Firstly:
You did not ask for this.

You asked for ancient literature that showed the ancient description that the Hebrews believed in a trinity of God the Father, His Son (the messiah/son of man/the “word” of John, etc).

Secondly: It would help if you would READ Enoch. The text here is describing a period of time “even before the creation of the sun and the moon…” (i.e. before the creation of the world). This is the same time period John is describing when John writes “In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God”…”All things were created by him and without him nothing was made.”

Thirdly: We’ve gone over this already, but I am happy to repeat the point again. Enoch says of this pre-creation period of time:

“At that hour, that Son of Man was given a name, in the presence of the Lord of the Spirits, the Before-Time (Lit “before the beginning [or “head”] of days,”), even before the creation of the sun and the moon, before the creation of the stars, he was given a name in the presence of the Lord of the Spirits. He will become a staff for the righteous ones in order that they may lean on him and not fall. He is the light of the gentiles and he will become the hope of those who are sick in their hearts.” 1st Enoch 48:1-7

The text of Enoch is quite specific that it refers to the fact that the Word of God/Messiah/Jesus was with God from BEFORE creation. The Phrase "before the creation of the sun" means "before the creation of the sun" and this refers to the same time period referred to in John 1:1 where John says “In the beginning was the Word and the Word was with God.”



3) THE HOLY SPIRIT IS NOT A HUMAN "PERSON"
Thomas said : “I just don't see evidence of the Holy Spirit as a Person, nor do I know of any commentary that does?”


The reason you don’t see evidence of that is because they did not seem to believe the Holy Ghost was a person.

I use the term “individual” (or sometimes “person” like you have done). My motive is to avoid using more nebulous terms such as “character” or “entity”, or “power”, etc.

I notice you also refer to the Holy Ghost as a “person” when you point out that the change in John 1:18 “does not affect the understanding of the Trinity as Three Persons”.


4) THE CHRISTIAN APOSTOLIC CONSTITUTIONS HAVE RELATIONSHIPS AND OFTEN QUOTE THEIR JEWISH VERSIONS
Thomas said : “You quote from the Apostolic Constitutions, but that is a Christian text, not a Jewish one.”


Yes, I did.

If you research just a bit, you will see that the the Christian apostolic constitutions quote from earlier Jewish texts.
For example, the JEWISH Hellenistic Synagogal Prayers are quoted in the CHRISTIAN Apostolic Constitutions.
For example, Prayer #9 of the Hellenistic Synagogal Prayer of the Jews appears in the Apostolic Constitutions 8.5.1-4 & related to 9:1-13. One can thus quote EITHER synagogal prayer #9 OR ApoConst and get the same text.

As I’ve already pointed out and given some examples of, there are often multiple Jewish AND Christian versions of the same ancient narratives.



5) DOES A CHANGE IN BIBLICAL TEXT REFLECT A DESIRE TO CHANGE THE TEXT OR DOES THE CHANGE IN TEXT REFLECT A DESIRE TO LEAVE THE TEXT AS IT IS?
Clear said regarding the change in John 1:18 greek: “4) CHANGING THE TEXT IS ITSELF AN INDICATION OF A DESIRE TO CHANGE THE TEXT.
Thomas replied : “possibly”

Do you have an opposing theory to the logic that “changing the text indicates a desire to change the text”?
Is it possible for example, that “changing the text indicates a desire NOT to change the text”?
Can you elaborate on your theory as to WHY the text was changed without a desire to change the text?



6) DOES CHANGING "UNBEGOTTEN GOD" OF JOHN 1:18 TO READ "UNBEGOTTEN SON" AFFECT THE MEANING (AND THUS THE UNDERSTANDING) OF THE TEXT?
Thomas said: “But it does not affect the understanding of the Trinity as Three Persons”


Such a change to biblical text may not change YOUR model of the trinity, but it does for many others who study the biblical text and its historical theology.

The early concept of God the Father, as an “unbegotten God” versus Johns text describing the Son as a “begotten God” causes a theological shift

There were important historical and theological principles underlying Johns original writing of “unbegotten God” that shift when scribes change the text to “actual writing wrote and is more consistent with the ancient version of the three individuals making up the ancient trinity of three individuals and the old text makes more clear that the Word was a God in his own right and not merely a “Son”. Changes to the text cause distortions to historical study of the Bible.

The earlier version was more consistent with ancient Judeo-Christian beliefs and is, obviously, what the author wrote and intended. Just as the word “God” has a different meaning than the word “Son”, the word “unbegotten” has a different meaning than the word “begotten”. Changes to the language cause distortions to linguistic study of the Bible.

Corruptions of biblical text have an effect on those who are in the process of creating their personal model and beliefs of what the text means. Changes to the text causes distortions to a theology study of the historical Biblical text.



7) DOES GOD TRULY TRANSCEND INTELLECT OF MAN OR DOES MAN SIMPLY LACK KNOWLEDGE AND UNDERSTANDING OF GOD?
Thomas said : “As God is understood to transcend the intellect, the intellect cannot encompass God.”


While you feel God transcends your personal intellect, I think God simply transcends current knowledge and understanding.
I don’t know which of us is correct.

I'll have to get to your other points later. Thank you for your clarifications Thomas.
 
1) DID JERUSALEM HAVE A LIBRARY IN 384 A.D.?
Clear said: “Archbishop Timothy claims he found the text in a library in Jerusalem in the 300s. Can you provide some evidence to support the claim that neither the original source text nor a library existed in Jerusalem in the 300s?”
Thomas replied: “There is no record of the existence of any such library.

If you READ Eusebius (book 6, chapt 20), he describes the Jerusalem library founded by Bishop Alexander of the third century. Eusebius even describes this library as containing works by famous works of Beryllus, Hippolytus and a dialogue of Caius.

Though Jerusalem was the central, “Holy City” of Judaism, other cities had libraries during this time as well. For example, Caesarea had a theological library established by Origen in the 3rd century as well and Pamphilus was reported to have expanded it to 30,000 manuscripts.

The Qumran Library of 70 a.d. had almost 1000 different texts (and in addition to that, multiple copies of certain texts) around 1,200 different texts altogether. Many Scholars believe this was part of Jerusalems theological library since no one knows where the texts came from and who produced them.

Your assumption that Jerusalem had no library is (to me) a very strange and naïve assumption.

Why would Jerusalem not have archives of public records, books, legal records, etc?

IF there were no libraries with multiple texts such as copies of the Pentateuch, why were so many scribes needed near the time of Christ and what was their purpose?

Even Jewish synagogues themselves had libraries of scrolls (just like churches typically have libraries). For example, in the single Cairo Geninza, 400,000 (four hundred Thousand) manuscript fragments were found, representing multiple books that is even called the “Nag Hamadi Library”.


2) IS IT LOGICAL TO EXPECT SACRED TEXTS TO DESCRIBE A LIBRARY IN ANY TOWN?
Thomas said : “Surely if there were, it would have been mentioned by the Fathers, and the writings of the apostles contained therein would have been referenced? "


This is (to me), strange logic.
WHY would the apostolic Fathers or the apostles care to describe a diary.
I’ve written a lot of letters but was never excited enough about a library to describe it in a lettter. .
Has any reader here mentioned a local library as an important part of their evangelizing?


3) WILL YOU PROVIDE ACTUAL EVIDENCE TO SUPPORT YOUR THEORY THAT ABBATON WAS THE WORK OF COPTIC MONKS IN LATER CENTURIES?

Thomas said regarding the “discourse on abbaton” text : “ it was the work of Coptic monks at least two centuries after Timothy died.”

O.K. lets look at your theory.
Will you describe the data you are basing this theory on?
You say monks did this. Which monks and where did they accomplish this?
Did they use source text or did they make up the text. IF they made up the text then why do parts of the abbaton narrative appear in Judeo-Christian literature that comes from the very period Timothy describes (late 300s)? (literature from the Cairo Geninza)

I'm not sure why this specific theory of this specific text is so important to you, but Will you provide some actual, very basic evidence for this theory?
 
I noticed I made a couple mistakes in my last post and want to repair one.

Under the heading: 2) IS IT LOGICAL TO EXPECT SACRED TEXTS TO DESCRIBE A LIBRARY IN ANY TOWN?

I wrote:

WHY would the apostolic Fathers or the apostles care to describe a diary.

This sentence should read: "WHY would the apostolic Fathers or the apostles care to describe a LIBRARY?"
 
Hi Clear –
1) REGARDING JEWISH LITERATURE THAT DESCRIBES JUDEO-CHRISTIAN BELIEF IN GOD, IN THE LOGOS (SON/MESSIAH), AND IN THE HOLY SPIRIT.
Thomas said: “I'm not aware of any early Jewish text that speaks of God the Father, his Son Jesus and the Holy Spirit. If you can point out the early Jewish texts that speak of a trinity of Father, Son and Holy Spirit, or Father, Messiah (as a divine being) and Holy Spirit, that would be helpful.”

Clear replied: We have already gone over this but I am happy to do so again. Here are some prior quotes:
I rather think that we're looking in retrospect, and certainly Christians argue for a foreshadowing of the Trinity in the Hebrew Scriptures, but there is not enough data there on which to build a similar doctrine.

As Peter Schafer said in his critique of Boyarin:
"... the Canaanite gods El and Ba‘al, the former being the ancient sky god and the latter his younger associate, whom the Bible tried—not always successfully—to merge into one God in order to accomplish its idea of a strict monotheism. The notion of a duality within God ... is present in the Hebrew Bible itself. Fair enough—nobody would want to disagree with (Boyarin) here: that duality was a condition that the Bible sought not to affirm but to overcome. Yet with such a broad perspective on origins, almost anything that later emerges in Christianity could be traced back to the Hebrew Bible." (emphasis mine)

A Christian reader can certainly see a foreshadowing, but it's only visible in the light of the revelation in Christ. I mean, I see it in the appearance of the 'three men' at Mamre (Genesis 18).

a)THE JEWS DESCRIBE THEIR BELIEF IN A GOD AND SON IN HEAVEN BEFORE THE WORLD WAS CREATED
OK ... I should have followed the link. My bad. I would add that Enoch was regarded as pseudepigrapha and not received as a canonical text by the Jews, although it is by Ethiopic Christianity. I'm not sure all Jews believed it, although I do not doubt its influence.

THE JEWS BELIEVED IN THE HOLY SPIRIT OF GOD AS WELL
I have never said otherwise.

Thomas replied: “But as far as I can see, none of the quotes speak of three as a triune of three persons?”
That is correct. Early Judeo-Christian literature describes THEIR version of the trinity and NOT the version adopted by many of the various later Christian movements.
Jews who were Christian believers did, I do not dispute that. But Jews who were not Christrian had no version of a trinity as far as I can see, nor do I see any Jewish scholarship supporting that idea.

Though the Hebrews believed in a trinity, as their literature demonstrates, their trinity was not a 3=1 trinity (i.e. three individuals as “one” individual), but instead their trinity was still the earlier 3=3 trinity (i.e. three individuals as three individuals). The 3=1 version of the trinity had not yet developed in Judeo-Christian literature at this point in history.
Again, can you point to any Jewish exegetical writings that support that thesis?

Thomas said: “But I don't see the texts you offer of Enoch showing the Son of Man present with God at the creation of the world, although I can see that the assumption is not invalid, as the heavens in which they reside are outside the normal time-space we exist in.
Secondly: It would help if you would READ Enoch.
Acknowledged. I should have.

The reason you don’t see evidence of that is because they did not seem to believe the Holy Ghost was a person.
Quite ... my whole point.

I use the term “individual” (or sometimes “person” like you have done). My motive is to avoid using more nebulous terms such as “character” or “entity”, or “power”, etc.
I prefer, for the sake of clarity, to remain within contextual norms. One could use the term hypostasis, rather than person, but then one would need to discuss the meaning of hypostasis and prosopon in detail, as they are not the same ...

4) THE CHRISTIAN APOSTOLIC CONSTITUTIONS HAVE RELATIONSHIPS AND OFTEN QUOTE THEIR JEWISH VERSIONS
Thomas said : “You quote from the Apostolic Constitutions, but that is a Christian text, not a Jewish one.”

If you research just a bit, you will see that the the Christian apostolic constitutions quote from earlier Jewish texts.
For example, the JEWISH Hellenistic Synagogal Prayers are quoted in the CHRISTIAN Apostolic Constitutions.
For example, Prayer #9 of the Hellenistic Synagogal Prayer of the Jews appears in the Apostolic Constitutions 8.5.1-4 & related to 9:1-13. One can thus quote EITHER synagogal prayer #9 OR ApoConst and get the same text.
As I’ve already pointed out and given some examples of, there are often multiple Jewish AND Christian versions of the same ancient narratives.
I don't dispute that, on general terms. But there are specific Christian elements to the work. The Constitutions contain the Didache, a specifically Christian document.

5) DOES A CHANGE IN BIBLICAL TEXT REFLECT A DESIRE TO CHANGE THE TEXT OR DOES THE CHANGE IN TEXT REFLECT A DESIRE TO LEAVE THE TEXT AS IT IS?
Do you have an opposing theory to the logic that “changing the text indicates a desire to change the text”?
A mistake? although in this instance, I would have thought the change was deliberate.

Can you elaborate on your theory as to WHY the text was changed without a desire to change the text?
I have no theory.

6) DOES CHANGING "UNBEGOTTEN GOD" OF JOHN 1:18 TO READ "UNBEGOTTEN SON" AFFECT THE MEANING (AND THUS THE UNDERSTANDING) OF THE TEXT?
Thomas said: “But it does not affect the understanding of the Trinity as Three Persons”

Such a change to biblical text may not change YOUR model of the trinity, but it does for many others who study the biblical text and its historical theology.
I wouldn't have thought it changed any orthodox understanding of the Trinity as Three Persons. People who study biblical texts see nothing to be alarmed about. Either reading does not change the understanding, so it's not a matter of great consequence.

It is a conundrum for people who are into texts, but there is no sure nor simple answer.

The early concept of God the Father, as an “unbegotten God” versus Johns text describing the Son as a “begotten God” causes a theological shift[/I]
The oldest texts we have say monogenēs theos meaning one and only/unbegotten God identifies Jesus directly as fully divine in a unique
relationship with the Father.

The later, and vastly more common texts, say monogenēs huios meaning the one and only/unbegotten Son, identifies Jesus as the unique Son who reveals the Father, but doesn't explicitly assert his divinity. He could be God's chosen prophet.

The later text then, to some degree undermines the argument in support of the divinity of the Son. The question then is, why?
It could be that the scribe, supporting a hierarchical theology, wanted to distinguish between the (primary) divinity of the Father and the (secondary) divinity of the Son – this was a common belief in the Early Christian community?
It could be that the scribe used the word 'Son' to harmonise with the early Synoptic texts which refer to Jesus as "The Son of God" throughout?

The earlier version was more consistent with ancient Judeo-Christian beliefs and is, obviously, what the author wrote and intended...
Are you sure?

I would have thought "Son of God" was the more consistent reference? John himself uses 10 times. The Synoptics use it often. Paul does. The phrase would have been a common idea in the community by the time John was in circulation.

Just as the word “God” has a different meaning than the word “Son”, the word “unbegotten” has a different meaning than the word “begotten”. Changes to the language cause distortions to linguistic study of the Bible.
Well 'begotten' does not appear, so the issue is between "Son" and "God" and only matters if the Son is not God.

Corruptions of biblical text have an effect on those who are in the process of creating their personal model and beliefs of what the text means. Changes to the text causes distortions to a theology study of the historical Biblical text.
Indeed, but I would argue that
a) – we're not talking about individual ideas or personal models, as it's evident that peope read all manner of texts all manner of ways, and
b) – whether by changing 'God" to "Son" distorts the resulting theology – I would argue not.
 
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1) DID JERUSALEM HAVE A LIBRARY IN 384 A.D.?
Clear said: “Archbishop Timothy claims he found the text in a library in Jerusalem in the 300s. Can you provide some evidence to support the claim that neither the original source text nor a library existed in Jerusalem in the 300s?”
Thomas replied: “There is no record of the existence of any such library.

If you READ Eusebius (book 6, chapt 20), he describes the Jerusalem library founded by Bishop Alexander of the third century. Eusebius even describes this library as containing works by famous works of Beryllus, Hippolytus and a dialogue of Caius.
As you say, that library was founded in the third century. The library to which pseudo-Timothy refers was supposedly founded by the Apostles, and contained their writings. As Eusebius makes no mention of writings of the Apostles – and he surely would have done had they existed – one can assume this is a different library.

One can assume any structure used by the Apostles in Jerusalem was destroyed when Jerusalem was destroyed in 70CE. Only a couple of buildings survived, although notably the house of the mother of John-Mark might well have done so, and could serve as such a library, but it wasn't functioning as such in the 3rd/4th century.

Though Jerusalem was the central, “Holy City” of Judaism, other cities had libraries during this time as well. For example, Caesarea had a theological library established by Origen in the 3rd century as well and Pamphilus was reported to have expanded it to 30,000 manuscripts.
Yep. And neither of those claim to house any writings of the Apostles.

The Qumran Library of 70 a.d. had almost 1000 different texts (and in addition to that, multiple copies of certain texts) around 1,200 different texts altogether. Many Scholars believe this was part of Jerusalems theological library since no one knows where the texts came from and who produced them.
Have any been identified as the writings of the Apostles?

Your assumption that Jerusalem had no library is (to me) a very strange and naïve assumption.
I think it's quite reasonable to suggest Jerusalem had no such libraray as the Abbaton refers to – you're making my claim to read no libraries at all strikes me as disingenuous.

2) IS IT LOGICAL TO EXPECT SACRED TEXTS TO DESCRIBE A LIBRARY IN ANY TOWN?
Thomas said : “Surely if there were, it would have been mentioned by the Fathers, and the writings of the apostles contained therein would have been referenced? "
The logic is reasonable, your misrepresentation is not.

WHY would the apostolic Fathers or the apostles care to describe a diary.
*** Saw your correction ***

I would have thought it reasonable to assume, had the Fathers had access to a library housing writings of the Twelve Apostles, they would have referenced both the library and the writings?

I would have thought Alexander, Origen and others, if they could not have taken possession of the actual writings, would have had copies made for their own libraries, bearing in mind they sourced thousands of texts?

I would have thought anything written by one of the Twelve Apostles would carry more weight even than Paul, and certainly over the four Evangelists. I would have thought it ranked second only to a written testimony by Christ Himself.

Has any reader here mentioned a local library as an important part of their evangelizing?
Now you're being silly.

3) WILL YOU PROVIDE ACTUAL EVIDENCE TO SUPPORT YOUR THEORY THAT ABBATON WAS THE WORK OF COPTIC MONKS IN LATER CENTURIES?
I have provided actual scholarly evidence. I recorded the links for you. Plenty of evidence there.

Thomas said regarding the “discourse on abbaton” text : “ it was the work of Coptic monks at least two centuries after Timothy died.”
O.K. lets look at your theory.
Will you describe the data you are basing this theory on?
Yep. The scholarly materials referenced above.

You say monks did this. Which monks and where did they accomplish this?

Coptic Martyrdoms: The Discourse on Abbatôn, Colophon, p496
"Remember of your charity Theopistus, the least worthy of men, O every one who shall read in this book, [and pray] that God will forgive me the multitude of my sins. Written on the eleventh day of the month of Thoth, in the Third Indiction, of the six hundred and ninety-eighth year of the Era of the Martyrs (i.e. a.d. 698).

... This little book was made by the zeal and care of the God-loving brother, Etout (?) Khael, the son of the blessed Stephen, the island farmer, who undertook [the writing thereof] at his own expense, and gave it to the Monastery of St. Mercurius ... "


(There is a document: Colophons of Coptic Manuscripts which offer other versions, on page 9)

Did they use source text or did they make up the text.
Have we any reference of a source text?

IF they made up the text then why do parts of the abbaton narrative appear in Judeo-Christian literature that comes from the very period Timothy describes (late 300s)? (literature from the Cairo Geninza)
I'm not disputing the existence of the name.

Can you reference the particular texts?

I'm not sure why this specific theory of this specific text is so important to you, but Will you provide some actual, very basic evidence for this theory?
It's not important to me at all. It is to you, it seems.

Can you reference any scholarly works that support your thesis?

Can you offer any evidence to refute the detailed work of the scholars I cited?
 
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Hi Thomas

1) HISTORY IS “LOOKING IN RETROSPECT” AND DATA IS INSUFFICIENT TO CONFIRM ONE CANNOT BUILD THE MODERN TRINITY FROM ANCIENT HEBREW TEXTS

Thomas said: I rather think that we're looking in retrospect, and certainly Christians argue for a foreshadowing of the Trinity in the Hebrew Scriptures, but there is not enough data there on which to build a similar doctrine.


Thomas, I agree with you that History, by definition, is always looking “in retrospect”.

I also agree that there is not enough data to build and confirm a trinity similar to the popular (3=1) trinity adopted by many modern Christians.
I think the reason one cannot build a doctrine similar to the later 3=1 theory of a trinity is that that was not the sort of trinity the Hebrews believed in, as their texts describe.

For example, as Schafer points out, the earliest biblical text does not “merge into one God” the prior Polytheism Judaism inherited from Canaan where El is the God in the Sky, and Ba’al is his Son, (especially since Jehovah was known by the name “Ba’al” in early Jahwism). The Old Testament doesn’t “merge” them “into one God”.

The spirit which “moved upon the face of the waters” (Genesis 1:2) seems to always retained his separate identity from the Father God (El), and the Son God (Ba’al, Jehovah, Lord, etc) in the Old Testament text.

Again, I have to ask for you to explain what you actually mean when you use the words “duality” and “two powers”.



2) REGARDING THE ANCIENT HEBREW VERSION OF THE TRINITY

Thomas said regarding the modern, (popular) version of the trinity: “A Christian reader can certainly see a foreshadowing, but it's only visible in the light of the revelation in Christ. I mean, I see it in the appearance of the 'three men' at Mamre (Genesis 18).”

While you may personal see the three men as Mamre as “foreshadowing” YOUR version of the trinity, I would expect that ancient Hebrews would have seen THEIR ancient version of the trinity instead of the trinity of modern Christendom.

For example, the text tells us: “The LORD (Jehovah) appeared to Abraham near the great trees of Mamre while he was sitting at the entrance to his tent in the heat of the day. (vs 1)”

While the two who accompany Jehovah “turned away and went toward Sodom, but the Lord (Jehovah) stood yet before Abraham (v22, c.f. the Masorah).” In this version two of the messengers leave for Sodom and Jehovah/the Lord stayed behind and "stood yet before Abraham"
IF one is to read the text inside the context of ancient polytheism or Henotheism because God the Father is an"unseen" (αορατοσ) God, then who is this God who is, obviously seen by Abraham and others.

For example, YOUR version of God is understood to transcend the intellectwhereas the ancient Hebrew texts (i.e. THEIR version) describe a much more anthropomorphic God and still viewed El, Ba’al/Jehovah/the spirit as three individuals.



3) THOMAS ASKED FOR EVIDENCE OF THE EARLY JEWISH BELIEF IN GOD, THE SON/MESSIAH, AND THE HOLY GHOST

Thomas said: “But I don't see the texts you offer of Enoch showing the Son of Man present with God at the creation of the world, although I can see that the assumption is not invalid, as the heavens in which they reside are outside the normal time-space we exist in.

Clear responded: “Firstly:
You did not ask for this…

Secondly: It would help if you would READ Enoch. The text here is describing a period of time “even before the creation of the sun and the moon…” (i.e. before the creation of the world). This is the same time period John is describing when John writes “In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God”…”All things were created by him and without him nothing was made.”

Thirdly: We’ve gone over this already, but I am happy to repeat the point again. Enoch says of this pre-creation period of time:

“At that hour, that Son of Man was given a name, in the presence of the Lord of the Spirits, the Before-Time (Lit “before the beginning [or “head”] of days,”), even before the creation of the sun and the moon, before the creation of the stars, he was given a name in the presence of the Lord of the Spirits. He will become a staff for the righteous ones in order that they may lean on him and not fall. He is the light of the gentiles and he will become the hope of those who are sick in their hearts.” 1st Enoch 48:1-7

The text of Enoch is quite specific that it refers to the fact that the Word of God/Messiah/Jesus was with God from BEFORE creation. The Phrase "before the creation of the sun" means "before the creation of the sun" and this refers to the same time period referred to in John 1:1 where John says
“In the beginning was the Word and the Word was with God.”

Thomas responded: “OK ... I should have followed the link. My bad.


I did not provide a link, just the text.
Thank you for recognizing this new historical principle Thomas.



4) THE ANACHRONISM OF APPLYING MODERN THEOLOGICAL VIEWS TO THE ANCIENT HEBREWS

Thomas said : “I would add that Enoch was regarded as pseudepigrapha and not received as a canonical text by the Jews, although it is by Ethiopic Christianity.”


Your response is interesting from a historical standpoint.

While YOU view Enoch as a pseudepigraph, can you provide some evidential data why you think THEY (i.e. the ancient Hebrews and Early Christians themselves) ALSO viewed Enoch as pseudographa or as uninspired?

For example, New Testament Jude both mentions Enoch AND quotes word for word from Enoch. On this same point, Lawrence, upon discovering Ethiopic Enoch noticed more than 127 themes from Enoch quoted inside the New Testament Text.

Why do you think so many New Testament themes and Judes' direct quuote came from Enoch if the early Judeo-Christians did not think Enoch was inspired and worthy of quoting from and including in the New Testament (which most Christians feel is inspired)?

Do you think the the term “pseudoepigraph” even existed in the time period we are talking about?


5) ANCIENT TEXTS WERE OFTEN SYNCRETIC, OFTEN SHARED BY HEBREWS AND CHRISTIANS, AND OFTEN EXISTED IN MULTIPLE VERSIONS

Thomas said : “You quote from the Apostolic Constitutions, but that is a Christian text, not a Jewish one.”

Clear explained: If you research just a bit, you will see that the the Christian apostolic constitutions quote from earlier Jewish texts.
For example, the JEWISH Hellenistic Synagogal Prayers are quoted in the CHRISTIAN Apostolic Constitutions.
For example, Prayer #9 of the Hellenistic Synagogal Prayer of the Jews appears in the Apostolic Constitutions 8.5.1-4 & related to 9:1-13. One can thus quote EITHER synagogal prayer #9 OR ApoConst and get the same text.

Thomas replied: “I don't dispute that, on general terms. But there are specific Christian elements to the work.”

Yes. I agree with your point that Christians use elements from earlier, Hebrew texts for their own theology.
Judeo-Christians shared Certain doctrines and texts.

For example, “Thou Shalt not lie” originates in HEBREW theology and text, but the same theology and text was adopted and quoted by Christians despite HEBREW origins.
There has always been a “mixing” of Jewish and Christian theology and just as Christians may quote the HEBREW ten commandments from a HEBREW OLD TESTAMENT, they do it because it reflects NEW TESTAMENT Christian theology as well.

In the same way, HEBREW synagogal prayers were quoted by New Testament era Christians because such prayers also represented ancient CHRISTIAN theology as well as Hebrew Theology as well.



6) Clear said regarding the change in John 1:18 greek: “4) CHANGING THE TEXT IS ITSELF AN INDICATION OF A DESIRE TO CHANGE THE TEXT.
Thomas replied : “possibly”
Clear responded: “Do you have an opposing theory to the logic that “changing the text indicates a desire to change the text”? Is it possible for example, that “changing the text indicates a desire NOT to change the text”? Can you elaborate on your theory as to WHY the text was changed without a desire to change the text?

Thomas replied: “A mistake? although in this instance, I would have thought the change was deliberate.”

This suggestion/theory that the text was made by “mistake” is interesting.
Can you elaborate any evidential data which suggests changing the biblical text in John 1:18 was a “mistake”?

Thomas replied: “I have no theory.”
I agree that, other than your suggestion that the change in text was a “mistake”, so far, you have not offered any theory to explain the change in text.

This is another reason why the theory that the change was both deliberate and motivated by discomfort with the original text, is better than having “no theory” that explains the change in text.



7) DOES CHANGING "UNBEGOTTEN GOD" OF JOHN 1:18 TO READ "UNBEGOTTEN SON" AFFECT THE MEANING (AND THUS THE UNDERSTANDING) OF THE TEXT?
Thomas said: “But it does not affect the understanding of the Trinity as Three Persons”

Clear responded: “Such a change to biblical text may not change YOUR model of the trinity, but it does for many others who study the biblical text and its historical theology.

The early concept of God the Father, as an “unbegotten God” versus Johns text describing the Son as a “begotten God” causes a theological shift

There were important historical and theological principles underlying Johns original writing of “unbegotten God” that shift when scribes change the text to “actual writing wrote and is more consistent with the ancient version of the three individuals making up the ancient trinity of three individuals and the old text makes more clear that the Word was a God in his own right and not merely a “Son”. Changes to the text cause distortions to historical study of the Bible.

The earlier version was more consistent with ancient Judeo-Christian beliefs and is, obviously, what the author wrote and intended. Just as the word “God” has a different meaning than the word “Son”, the word “unbegotten” has a different meaning than the word “begotten”. Changes to the language cause distortions to linguistic study of the Bible.

Corruptions of biblical text have an effect on those who are in the process of creating their personal model and beliefs of what the text means. Changes to the text causes distortions to a theology study of the historical Biblical text.

Thomas responded: “I wouldn't have thought it changed any orthodox understanding of the Trinity as Three Persons.


A) Which “orthodoxy” of which movement and which time period are you referring to Thomas?

Are you referring to Ancient Judeao-Christian, or modern Christian orthodoxy?
If you are referring to one of the “modern” orthodoxies, then which Christian movement? (Catholic, Jehovahs Witness, Protestant, LDS, Jewish?, etc)

Orthodoxy of what time period?
Ancient Hebrew orthodoxy, or the Later Rabbinical Jewish Orthodoxy, or the Earliest Judeo-Christian orthodoxy, or the later Christian orthodoxy?



Thomas said: “People who study biblical texts see nothing to be alarmed about.”

I don’t think historians are particularly “alarmed” about textual corruptions of the biblical text.
Rather than "alarm", tt is more a matter of a desire to know the correct version and what that version meant, rather than anything that “alarms” them.

Thomas said : “Either reading does not change the understanding, so it's not a matter of great consequence.”

I disagree.

The word “Son” does not mean the same thing as word “God”.
The word “begotten” does not mean the same as “unbegotten”.
To the degree that words are changed, interpretation changes.
Normal individuals will notice that “begotten” and “unbegotten” are understood to mean different things.


Thomas said : “It is a conundrum for people who are into texts,…”
I agree textual corruptions can be a “conundrum” that obscures and confuses meanings and interpretations.
I also think most Judeo-Christians are “into texts” such as those who are “into” reading the bible and trying to understand what it means.



Clear said: “The early concept of God the Father, as an “unbegotten God” versus Johns text describing the Son as a “begotten God” causes a theological shift…”
Thomas makes the claim: “The later, and vastly more common texts, say monogenēs huios meaning the one and only/unbegotten Son…”


This is an unusual claim.

Versions that include the more original text include: P75, א1, 33pc, Cl(et), Cl(ex th), Origen (pt), p66, B, C, L (pc) Sy (hmg), Or (pt) Didimus, etc.
Can I also assume you know the difference between the value of certain ancient textual witnesses over others.
For example, Witnesses of first order, versus witnesses of the second order versus "corrupted texts" that have little value?
Can you provide a list of texts that read “μονογενες υιος” that outweigh the earlier witnesses?



8) REGARDING THE EARLIER VERSION OF JOHN 1:18

Clear said:
“The earlier version was more consistent with ancient Judeo-Christian beliefs and is, obviously, what the author wrote and intended. Just as the word “God” has a different meaning than the word “Son”, the word “unbegotten” has a different meaning than the word “begotten”. Changes to the language cause distortions to linguistic study of the Bible.”
Thomas replied: “Are you sure?”


This is an interesting question Thomas. I suppose it is possible that John made a mistake and wrote something he did not intend to write. It is possible that the biblical text has a LOT of mistakes and many of the apostles and early witnesses made mistakes and did not write what they intended to write. Theoretically, because we do not have autographs, no one knows what the earliest versions of the Old and New Testament text said to better study this point.

Mistakes or not, the texts we have ARE the texts we have and it is, (to me), simply an uncomfortable thought to think anyone can change the text to say what they think it should say to support their theology rather than changing their theology to represent the text.

I think your question is also interesting since we have examples where this already has and continues to happen.
For example, arbitrary textual changes explain why European Protestants and Catholics had a different set of Ten Commandments for a time (until Luther re-added the 2nd commandment in his 3rd edition).

It explains the tendency for Christian movements to produce their own versions of the bible to support their various theologies.



Thomas said: “I would have thought "Son of God" was the more consistent reference?”

I think the words John used, depended upon the underlying theological point John was trying to make.

IF John simply wanted to indicate Jesus best explained the nature of God (which no man had seen), then “Son of God” would have been sufficiently clear.
IF John wanted to make the point that Jesus (which many had seen) was a God in his own right, then “only begotten God” would more clearly make this point.
IF John was also trying to make the point that Jesus was "begotten" as a God, this also required the original text rather than the changes.
As I mentioned, Corruptions to text tend to corrupt meanings of text.


9) BELIEFS ARE, ESSENTIALLY, INDIVIDUAL BELIEFS, EVEN IF SHARED BY OTHER INDIVIDUALS IN THE VARIOUS MOVEMENTS.
Clear claimed: “Corruptions of biblical text have an effect on those who are in the process of creating their personal model and beliefs of what the text means. Changes to the text causes distortions to a theology study of the historical Biblical text.”
Thomas replied: "Indeed, but I would argue that
a) – we're not talking about individual ideas or personal models, as it's evident that peope read all manner of texts all manner of ways…"


I disagree that you and I, in this conversation, are not speaking of personal models.
You and I ARE individuals.
I, as an individual, AM talking about MY individual ideas and MY personal models.
You, as an individual, are talking about YOUR individual ideas and YOUR personal models.

individuals that read the text, typically, have individual and personal thoughts and models about what they read.



Thomas said : "b) – whether by changing 'God" to "Son" distorts the resulting theology – I would argue not."


Perhaps it does not distort YOUR theological model Thomas, but the change in text can, and does, change the meaning for others.
Remember, not all individuals share YOUR theology and YOUR assumptions.

For example,

IF Jesus is merely a “Son” of God in the same manner as Adam (i.e. not a God), this is one meaning.
IF Jesus is, himself, a “God”, this is another meaning.
IF God the Father is “unbegotten”, this differentiates this God from a God who is “begotten” (unless you assume “unbegotten” and “begotten” mean the same).
This can be read to mean at least “two Gods” (one begotten and another unbegotten) exist.

Other meanings can underlie these differences in meaning (but, readers probably understand the concept that "changes in text often changes meaning of text"
 
Hi Thomas

1) REGARDING WHETHER JERUSALEM HAD A LIBRARY
Clear said: “Archbishop Timothy claims he found the text in a library in Jerusalem in the 300s. Can you provide some evidence to support the claim that neither the original source text nor a library existed in Jerusalem in the 300s?”
Thomas replied: “There is no record of the existence of any such library.
Clear replied: “If you READ Eusebius (book 6, chapt 20), he describes the Jerusalem library founded by Bishop Alexander of the third century. Eusebius even describes this library as containing works by famous works of Beryllus, Hippolytus and a dialogue of Caius.

Though Jerusalem was the central, “Holy City” of Judaism, other cities had libraries during this time as well. For example, Caesarea had a theological library established by Origen in the 3rd century as well and Pamphilus was reported to have expanded it to 30,000 manuscripts.

The Qumran Library of 70 a.d. had almost 1000 different texts (and in addition to that, multiple copies of certain texts) around 1,200 different texts altogether. Many Scholars believe this was part of Jerusalems theological library since no one knows where the texts came from and who produced them.

Your assumption that Jerusalem had no library is (to me) a very strange and naïve assumption.

Why would Jerusalem not have archives of public records, books, legal records, etc?

IF there were no libraries with multiple texts such as copies of the Pentateuch, why were so many scribes needed near the time of Christ and what was their purpose?

Even Jewish synagogues themselves had libraries of scrolls (just like churches typically have libraries). For example, in the single Cairo Geninza, 400,000 (four hundred Thousand) manuscript fragments were found, representing multiple books that is even called the “Nag Hamadi Library”.




2) IS IT LOGICAL TO EXPECT SACRED TEXTS TO DESCRIBE A LIBRARY IN ANY TOWN?
Thomas said :
“Surely if there were, it would have been mentioned by the Fathers, and the writings of the apostles contained therein would have been referenced? "

Clear responded: "This is (to me), strange logic.
WHY would the apostolic Fathers or the apostles care to describe a diary?
I’ve written a lot of letters but was never excited enough about a library to describe it in a lettter. .

Has any reader here mentioned a local library as an important part of their evangelizing?
Thomas responded: "Now you're being silly."


I apologize Thomas if it seemed silly to you. I am not trying to be silly.
I am simply trying to demonstrate that whether a library existed or not doesn't seem to be a priority in ANY sacred texts.
For example, I don't think the word "library" (or an equivalent) appears in the entire corpus of Old Testament and New Testament text. The priority for the text seems to be one of telling a sacred history, evangelizing and witnessing rather than even mentioning the various libraries that existed anciently.


3) WILL YOU PROVIDE ACTUAL EVIDENCE TO SUPPORT YOUR THEORY THAT ABBATON WAS THE WORK OF COPTIC MONKS IN LATER CENTURIES?

Thomas said regarding the “discourse on abbaton” text : “ it was the work of Coptic monks at least two centuries after Timothy died.”
Clear said: " O.K. lets look at your theory.
Will you describe the data you are basing this theory on?
You say monks did this. Which monks and where did they accomplish this?
Did they use source text or did they make up the text. IF they made up the text then why do parts of the abbaton narrative appear in Judeo-Christian literature that comes from the very period Timothy describes (late 300s)? (literature from the Cairo Geninza)
I'm not sure why this specific theory of this specific text is so important to you, but Will you provide some actual, very basic evidence for this theory?

Thomas quoted from the extant version of Abbaton: "Remember of your charity Theopistus…every one who shall read in this book…Written on the eleventh day of the month of Thoth, in the Third Indiction, of the six hundred and ninety-eighth year of the Era of the Martyrs (i.e. a.d. 698).
and
“This little book was made by the zeal and care of the God-loving brother, Etout (?) Khael…and gave it to the Monastery of St. Mercurius ... "


You seem to be assuming your quotes come from the Original version of the narrative found in Abbaton. Is my assumption correct?

Thomas, remember, you are providing quotes from the COPTIC version created many years AFTER the original GREEK version of Abbaton.
You are NOT quoting from the original Greek Abbaton which Timothy claimed to have written.

I agree with you that the later coptic version of this story seems to from the 7th century was produced by later scribes.

My request for data did NOT relate to any later versions, but rather, my request for data and evidence has to do with the ORIGINAL greek version of Abbaton. Do you have ANY evidence that the original Greek Abbaton was no written by Timothy who claims in the introduction, that he wrote it?

You must understand that there are many ancient source texts that say either the same thing as we discussed with Christian ApoConst and the Jewish Synagogal prayers. Some of the later ones are using earlier ones as source text. In this case, you seem to be conflating your late, Coptic version, with an earlier Greek version.
This seem (to me) to be a basic historical mistake.



Thomas said: “As Eusebius makes no mention of writings of the Apostles – and he surely would have done had they existed – one can assume this is a different library.

If you READ Eusebius, he mentions almost ALL of the apostolic writings.

He mentions the gospels, the acts, the epistles, (He specifically mentions 2Peter and Revelations which he points out some rejected). Remember, the word βιβλια MEANS “the books”, a collection of texts, which is the meaning of the greek for “library” (The Greek for library IS βιβλιοθεκε).

It can certainly BE correct that the various Libraries Eusebius describes are not the one referred to by Archbishop Timothy. That was not my claim.
I was responding to your claim that no libraries existed in Jerusalem when in fact Jerusalem and the various Synagogues had collections of Books, both sacred and secular.



Thomas said: “One can assume any structure used by the Apostles in Jerusalem was destroyed when Jerusalem was destroyed in 70CE. Only a couple of buildings survived…”

I don’t understand the underlying logic here that because in 70 a.d. buildings were destroyed, buildings would not have been built in the 314 intervening years.

For example, the Dead Sea Scrolls library is evidence that, though buildings were destroyed, the library of books itself were sequestered and hidden away and survived. Destruction of a “building” is not the same as destruction of it’s library or books.

The bible itself IS a library of 66 or 72 or 81 books (depending on which bible one uses). As I pointed out, Even the word “τα βιβλια” MEANS the “books’ and it represents a library of multiple texts.

Why assume that though in 70 a.d. a library was destroyed, that 314 years later, no library had been rebuilt? America is not yet 314 years old and much has changed and been built since its inception. Benjamin Franklins subscription library existed since before U.S. was a country (i.e.1731) and his library formed the seed literature for the 1790 Massachusetts public library (14 years after the declaration of independence). Given 314 years, I think Jerusalem would certainly have re-formed many sacred libraries.



4) THE EARLY HEBREWS BELIEVED IN GOD THE FATHER, A DIVINE MESSIAH AND IN A HOLY SPIRIT OF GOD.

Thomas said: “ But Jews who were not Christrian had no version of a trinity as far as I can see, nor do I see any Jewish scholarship supporting that idea.”


It helps to read the early literature where the ancient Jews describe their beliefs:

We have already gone over this but I am happy to do so again. Here are some prior quotes:

A)THE JEWS DESCRIBE THEIR BELIEF IN A GOD AND SON IN HEAVEN BEFORE THE WORLD WAS CREATED

In post #14 I gave the example from Jewish Enoch of 300 b.c. where the Prophet says he sees God the Father walking together with his son, the Messiah: “At that place, I saw “he who is of primordial days,” and his head was white like wool, and there was with him another individual whose face was like that of a human being. His countenance was full of grace like that of one among the holy angels.”

Enoch then asks the angel with him regarding who the person was who accompanied the Father and why he was with the Father saying:

“And he answered me and said to me, “This is the Son of Man, to whom belongs righteousness, and with whom righteousness dwells. And he will open all the hidden storerooms; for the Lord of the Spirits has chosen him, and he is destined to be victorious before the Lord of the Spirits in eternal uprightness. This Son of Man whom you have seen is the One who would remove the Kings and the mighty ones from their comfortable seats, and the strong ones from their thrones. He shall loosen the reins of the strong and crush the teeth of the sinners. He shall depose the kings from their thrones and kingdoms. For they do not extol and glorify him, and neither do they obey him, the source of their kingship.” (1st Enoch 46:1-6)

This scripture describes their belief in The Father and his Son, the messiah/Christ in the Heavenly realm.




b)THE JEWS BELIEVED IN THE HOLY SPIRIT OF GOD AS WELL

The Prophet Ezra’s prayer says: “If then I have found favor before you, send the Holy Spirit to me, and I will write everything that has happened in the world from the beginning, the things which were written in your Law, that men may be able to find the path, and that those who wish to live in the last days may live.” Fourth Book of Ezra 14:22;

“1 Let the one who is to be instructed in piety be taught before baptism: knowledge concerning the unbegotten God, understanding concerning the only begotten son, and full assurance concerning the Holy spirit. Hellenistic Synagogal Prayer” (AposCon 7.39.2-4)


Another Hellenistic prayer reads: “You have sent forth the Christ to men as a man, being uniquely born God; you have caused the Paraclete to live in us (AposCon 7.38.1-8);

The following texts from the Dead sea Scrolls describing their belief in the spirit, are (obviously) Jewish in origin.

The Jewish Dead Sea Scrolls also witness to us that the ancient temple centric Jews also believed in the Holy Spirit: “I give thanks to You, O LORD, for You have sustained me with your strength, and your Holy Spirit. 4Q429 Frag. 1 Col. 15:6

4Q427 of the Dead Sea Scrolls relates this same Jewish Doctrine: “And I, the instructor, have known you, O my God, by the spirit which you gave me, and I have listened faithfully to your wondrous council by your holy spirit.

In the dead sea scrolls THANKSGIVING PSALMS (Frags. 10, 24, 42 + 4Q427 Frag. 3 Col. 20) describes their belief in the Holy Spirit, saying : “Over the humble His spirit hovers, and He renews the faithful in His strength.

The import of the spirit for the temple centric Jews is described by their textual witnesses saying : "For only through the spirit pervading God’s true society can there be atonement for a man’s ways, all of his iniquities; thus only can he gaze upon the light of life and so be joined to his truth by his Holy Spirit, 1QS, 4Q255-264a, 5Q11 Col. 3

The ancient Jews expressed both their belief in and gratitude for the spirit thusly: “Indeed, You have poured out Your holy spirit upon us, bringing your blessings to us. 4Q504 Col. 5

The texts do not tell us other details but it is obvious that temple-centric Judaism believed in God the Father, and in the Messiah, and in the Holy Spirit since they describe all three in their literature.




Thomas said: “But I don't see the texts you offer of Enoch showing the Son of Man present with God at the creation of the world, although I can see that the assumption is not invalid, as the heavens in which they reside are outside the normal time-space we exist in.
Clear pointed out: “It would help
if you would READ Enoch.”
Thomas acknowledged: “Acknowledged. I should have.”


This is perfectly fine Thomas. I do not expect you to "see the texts" as "showing the Son of Man present with God at the creation of the world" since you have not read the text. One cannot "see" what one has not actually looked at.

It seem we both have a historical interest to a certain extent.

My interest is, mainly, in the earliest form of Judeo-Christian religion described by the ancient Judeo-Christians in their own descriptions in their own literature representing their own witnesses.

Thus, we won’t have the same knowledge bases. I, for example, have no real knowledge of your "two" and "three" power hypotheses (thus I asked you to explain them...)

This is not altogether a bad thing since I am introduced to new concepts and learn from your knowledge base as well.

The down side is that if you are not familiar with such ancient texts, we do not have a shared context on these specific texts and on what the earlies Judeo-Christians say they, themselves believed.



Thomas asked: “Again, can you point to any Jewish exegetical writings that support that thesis?”

Yes, read the early texts such as: Jewish Enoch; the dead sea scrolls (especially 1QH, + 4Q 428; 4Q491 and 4q369 Frag.1 Col. 1) , the Epistles of Ignatius to the Ephesians and to the tralians, the epistle of barnabas, the epistle to Diognetus, the apocalypse of Sedrach, the gospel of phillip, the gospel of bartholemew; the Martyrdom and Ascension of Isaiah (syncretic and redacted); the Hellenistic Synagogal Prayers (especially prayers #1, #4, #5, #12; 1st Clement;



5) THE HOLY SPIRIT IS NOT A HUMAN "PERSON"
Thomas said : “I just don't see evidence of the Holy Spirit as a Person, nor do I know of any commentary that does?”
Clear responded: “The reason you don’t see evidence of that is because they did not seem to believe the Holy Ghost was a person.”
Thomas responded: “Quite ... my whole point.”


O.K.
I didn’t realize from prior comments that you were trying to make the point that the Holy Spirit was not a person. We agree on this point.



6) REGARDING THE HOLY SPIRIT AND WORDS USED TO DESCRIBE THE HOLY SPIRIT

Clear said: “I use the term “individual” (or sometimes “person” like you have done). My motive is to avoid using more nebulous terms such as “character” or “entity”, or “power”, etc.”
Thomas said: “I prefer, for the sake of clarity, to remain within contextual norms. One could use the term hypostasis, rather than person, but then one would need to discuss the meaning of hypostasis and prosopon in detail, as they are not the same ...


I certainly agree that υποστασεως would be even more confusing than “individual” when describing the Holy Spirit. If you want to use “person”, or "individual", or some other term, it is mostly irrelevant to me. "υποστασεωσ" however, is a non-starter.



7) THE CHRISTIAN APOSTOLIC CONSTITUTIONS HAVE RELATIONSHIPS AND OFTEN QUOTE THEIR JEWISH VERSIONS
Thomas said : “You quote from the Apostolic Constitutions, but that is a Christian text, not a Jewish one.”

Clear responded: “Yes, I did.
If you research just a bit, you will see that the the Christian apostolic constitutions quote from earlier Jewish texts.
For example, the JEWISH Hellenistic Synagogal Prayers are quoted in the CHRISTIAN Apostolic Constitutions.
For example, Prayer #9 of the Hellenistic Synagogal Prayer of the Jews appears in the Apostolic Constitutions 8.5.1-4 & related to 9:1-13. One can thus quote EITHER synagogal prayer #9 OR ApoConst and get the same text.

As I’ve already pointed out and given some examples of, there are often multiple Jewish AND Christian versions of the same ancient narratives.

Thomas responded: “I don't dispute that, on general terms. But there are specific Christian elements to the work.”

I agree



8) REGARDING THE THEORY THAT THERE WAS NO EARLY VERSION OF ABBATON, BUT THAT THE COPTIC VERSION OF THE 900S WAS THE ORIGINAL

Clear said : “IF they made up the text then why do parts of the abbaton narrative appear in Judeo-Christian literature that comes from the very period Timothy describes (late 300s)? (literature from the Cairo Geninza)

Thomas said: “Can you reference the particular texts?”

Read “On the origin of the World from the Nag Hamadi Library”, this version of the narrative starts just over half-way through the text. For example, even though this text describes that “For this reason he left his modelled form forty days without soul, and he withdrew and abandoned it.”, this version has more specific context regarding the fear surrounding placing the spirit of life into Adam but the language is more gnostic. Having said this, there are also bits and pieces of the themes found in multiple early texts. (Enoch, barnabas, etc.)



9) ANCIENT CITIES HAD LIBRARIES. RELIGIOUS CITIES AND SYNAGOGUES HAD LIBRARIES. THE BIBLE IS A LIBRARY OF BOOKS.

Clear said : “Though Jerusalem was the central, “Holy City” of Judaism, other cities had libraries during this time as well. For example, Caesarea had a theological library established by Origen in the 3rd century as well and Pamphilus was reported to have expanded it to 30,000 manuscripts.
Thomas said: “Yep. And neither of those claim to house any writings of the Apostles.”


This seems to be a strange requirement that a “theological library” such as Origens (remember Origen was the head of a theological school) had to specifically claim they housed “writings of the apostles” when they had various apostolic writings (some from the biblical library) which were, themselves, a library.

My modern, protestant bible has 66 books in it. It IS, by definition, a library of books.

I notice that the library in city in which I live also doesn’t “claim to house writings of the apostles”, yet it does contain bibles and other sacred literature.
I don’t follow the logic that a library must claim specifically, to have these writings, else they do not have them.



Clear pointed out: “The Qumran Library of 70 a.d. had almost 1000 different texts (and in addition to that, multiple copies of certain texts) around 1,200 different texts altogether. Many Scholars believe this was part of Jerusalems theological library since no one knows where the texts came from and who produced them.”
Thomas responded: “Have any been identified as the writings of the Apostles?”


Not that I know of.
However, remember that the current biblical narrative also doesn't contain any text that can be confirmed to have been written by an apostle.

My response was specifically to your claim that no library would have existed in Jerusalem that the Bishop in Jerusalem could have accessed. The point was that libraries (especially theological libraries) were important in the ancient world and we have evidence of multiple sacred libraries existed, whether they were in city buildings, private collections, and synagogal libraries.



Thomas said: “Can you offer any evidence to refute the detailed work of the scholars I cited?”

You have offered several descriptive claims made by scholars who make claims that you, presumably, have adopted as your own position, BUT, I don’t seen that you have offered much of their actual “work” done in the form of data/evidence they used in making their claims.

Can you offer the specific “work” you think needs further refutation than has already been given?

Thanks for your insights Thomas
 
Hi Clear –
1) HISTORY IS “LOOKING IN RETROSPECT” AND DATA IS INSUFFICIENT TO CONFIRM ONE CANNOT BUILD THE MODERN TRINITY FROM ANCIENT HEBREW TEXTS

Thomas said: I rather think that we're looking in retrospect, and certainly Christians argue for a foreshadowing of the Trinity in the Hebrew Scriptures, but there is not enough data there on which to build a similar doctrine.


Thomas, I agree with you that History, by definition, is always looking “in retrospect”.
OK

I also agree that there is not enough data to build and confirm a trinity similar to the popular (3=1) trinity adopted by many modern Christians.
Depends what you mean by 'modern'.

There are two stream here.
1: Nicaea and Constantinople, the Cappadocians, Chalcedon and on...
2: A Trinitarian belief in the earliest baptismal formulae:
"And concerning baptism, baptise this way: Having first said all these things, baptise into the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit ... " (Didache, Chapter 7, 1st century)

"For, in the name of God, the Father and Lord of the universe, and of our Saviour Jesus Christ, and of the Holy Spirit, they then receive the washing with water." (Justin Martyr, First Apologia, Chapter 61, 2nd century)

"And for this (rite) we have learned from the apostles this reason. Since at our birth we were born without our own knowledge or choice ... but may become the children of choice and knowledge, and may obtain in the water the remission of sins formerly committed, there is pronounced over him who chooses to be born again, and has repented of his sins, the name of God the Father and Lord of the universe; he who leads to the laver the person that is to be washed calling him by this name alone. For no one can utter the name of the ineffable God; and if any one dare to say that there is a name, he raves with a hopeless madness. And this washing is called illumination, because they who learn these things are illuminated in their understandings. And in the name of Jesus Christ, who was crucified under Pontius Pilate, and in the name of the Holy Ghost, who through the prophets foretold all things about Jesus, he who is illuminated is washed." (ibid)

So my point would be, one can neither ask for nor expect a definition of the Trinity equal to the later (4th century) dogmatic definition of the Trinity to be found in the Hebrew Scriptures.

One can however assert that neither can any such definition or understanding of the earliest Trinitarian belief, in the name of the Father, the name of the Son and the name of the Holy Spirit, be found in the Hebrew Scriptures or the non-canonical Greek texts nor in any orthodox Jewish exegesis – that is the declaration of a belief in the One God in three names.

I think the reason one cannot build a doctrine similar to the later 3=1 theory of a trinity is that that was not the sort of trinity the Hebrewsl believed in, as their texts describe.
As I have said, while I see the Jews used various expressions to name their God, Yahweh, Elohim, Adonai, El Shaddai and others, and expressed a belief in the divine powers and energies under various names again – the Angel of God, the Spirit of God, the Word of God, and so on, there is nothing in Hebrew exegesis that evokes the three names in a specific threefold relation, nor is there as far as I know any invocation of grace or blessing or forgiveness, in three names.

Referring to three particular divine references does not constitute a 'trinity' as such, as one can by the same process arrive at a quaternity or a quinternity ...

For example, as Schafer points out, the earliest biblical text does not “merge into one God” the prior Polytheism Judaism inherited from Canaan where El is the God in the Sky, and Ba’al is his Son, (especially since Jehovah was known by the name “Ba’al” in early Jahwism). The Old Testament doesn’t “merge” them “into one God”.
Quite, it seeks to 'overcomes' them, as Schafer also points out, in a manner to draw the believer away from polytheism to monotheism.

The spirit which “moved upon the face of the waters” (Genesis 1:2) seems to always retained his separate identity from the Father God (El), and the Son God (Ba’al, Jehovah, Lord, etc) in the Old Testament text.
Where is the Father/Son distinction of El as Father and Ba'al, Jehovah, Jahweh, Adonia as the Son?

Daniel refers to the "Son of God" לְבַר־אֱלָהִין bar 'ĕlâ, in reference to the angel who appears with Shadrach, Meshach, and Abednego when they were cast into the furnace (Daniel 3:25) ... and there are five references to "the Sons of God", three in Job and two in Genesis (6:2 & 6:4), and in Genesis these Sons of God took "the daughters of men as wives". According to 1 Enoch, there were some 200 of them.

Again, I have to ask for you to explain what you actually mean when you use the words “duality” and “two powers”.
And again I refer you to the Two Powers thread, and the fact I am not so convinced by that argument as I was.

2) REGARDING THE ANCIENT HEBREW VERSION OF THE TRINITY
While you may personal see the three men as Mamre as “foreshadowing” YOUR version of the trinity, I would expect that ancient Hebrews would have seen THEIR ancient version of the trinity instead of the trinity of modern Christendom.
I don't think they saw any version of a trinity here or anywhere else, and as often as I have asked, you have noit been able to provide clear and unambiguous evidence for your thesis.

The Hebrews had many names for the Almighty God and the divine theophanic powers and presences – more than three.

And as said before, while the three men who appeared to Abraham at Mamre (Genesis 18), some Christians read as a trinitarian foreshadowing, I believe that to be a stretch. They were more likely angels.

3) THOMAS ASKED FOR EVIDENCE OF THE EARLY JEWISH BELIEF IN GOD, THE SON/MESSIAH, AND THE HOLY GHOST

Thank you for recognizing this new historical principle Thomas.
Nice try. I don't see any new historical principle.

4) THE ANACHRONISM OF APPLYING MODERN THEOLOGICAL VIEWS TO THE ANCIENT HEBREWS
Which I think you're doing, reading a trinity onto Hebrew Scripture.

While YOU view Enoch as a pseudepigraph, can you provide some evidential data why you think THEY (i.e. the ancient Hebrews and Early Christians themselves) ALSO viewed Enoch as pseudographa or as uninspired?
Oh, I was too emphatic there, and over-reached. It was very influential, and held in high regard.

5) ANCIENT TEXTS WERE OFTEN SYNCRETIC, OFTEN SHARED BY HEBREWS AND CHRISTIANS, AND OFTEN EXISTED IN MULTIPLE VERSIONS
Yes. I agree with your point that Christians use elements from earlier, Hebrew texts for their own theology.
Judeo-Christians shared Certain doctrines and texts.
Thank you.

For example, “Thou Shalt not lie” originates in HEBREW theology and text, but the same theology and text was adopted and quoted by Christians despite HEBREW origins.
Moral sanctions, against eg. murder, slander, theft etc., are commonplace of covenant treaties.

There has always been a “mixing” of Jewish and Christian theology and just as Christians may quote the HEBREW ten commandments from a HEBREW OLD TESTAMENT, they do it because it reflects NEW TESTAMENT Christian theology as well.
Quite. No-one disputes that.

In the same way, HEBREW synagogal prayers were quoted by New Testament era Christians because such prayers also represented ancient CHRISTIAN theology as well as Hebrew Theology as well.
Nor that. This is obvious.

The earliest Christians were practising Jews. The Apostolic Constitutions, addresses: "all those who from among the Gentiles have believed in the Lord Jesus Christ" (Book I foreword) and goes on to cite the Old Testament at length, throughout.

The distinctions (and tensions in the synagogue and wider community) occur when specifically Christian understandings are given:
"And in our days thou hast assisted us by thy great High Priest, Jesus Christ, thy Son." (VII, 38)

The last paragraph of the Constitutions reads:
"Now God who alone is unbegotten, and the Maker of the whole world, unite you all through his peace, in the Holy Spirit; perfect you unto every good work, immovable, unblamable, and unreprovable; and vouchsafe to you eternal life, with us, through the mediation of his beloved Son, Jesus Christ, our God and Saviour; with whom glory be to him, the God and Father over all, in the Holy Spirit, the Comforter, now, and always, and forever and ever. Amen." (VIII, postscript)
I doubt you'll find that in the Hebrew synagogal prayers.

6) Clear said regarding the change in John 1:18 greek: “4) CHANGING THE TEXT IS ITSELF AN INDICATION OF A DESIRE TO CHANGE THE TEXT.
Thomas replied : “possibly”
Clear responded: “Do you have an opposing theory to the logic that “changing the text indicates a desire to change the text”? Is it possible for example, that “changing the text indicates a desire NOT to change the text”? Can you elaborate on your theory as to WHY the text was changed without a desire to change the text?
As per my post #65 – I have no idea how or why the change happened. Nor, as far as I can gather, has anyone else.

This is another reason why the theory that the change was both deliberate and motivated by discomfort with the original text, is better than having “no theory” that explains the change in text.
Logical fallacy.

Because A is not proven, that does not mean B is.

7) DOES CHANGING "UNBEGOTTEN GOD" OF JOHN 1:18 TO READ "UNBEGOTTEN SON" AFFECT THE MEANING (AND THUS THE UNDERSTANDING) OF THE TEXT?
Thomas said: “But it does not affect the understanding of the Trinity as Three Persons”

Clear responded: “Such a change to biblical text may not change YOUR model of the trinity, but it does for many others who study the biblical text and its historical theology.
Who, precisely, and in what context?

The early concept of God the Father, as an “unbegotten God” versus Johns text describing the Son as a “begotten God” causes a theological shift
What shift, precisely?

There were important historical and theological principles underlying Johns original writing of “unbegotten God” that shift when scribes change the text to “actual writing wrote and is more consistent with the ancient version of the three individuals making up the ancient trinity of three individuals and the old text makes more clear that the Word was a God in his own right and not merely a “Son”. Changes to the text cause distortions to historical study of the Bible.
That reads a bit garbled to me?

There is no 'trinity of three individuals' referred to in the Prologue. There is just the Father and the Son.

No reader of the Gospel, as far as I can see, would be under any illusion that the Logos of God in John 1:1 was anyone other than the only-begotten Son of God, and that the only-begotten God of 1:18 is the Son.
 
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