He never adopted the language of his day on this subject. Their language was aidios timoria, endless torment. His language was aionion kolasin, age-lasting correction.
If Jesus had wanted to convey the idea of “eternal” He would have used aidios, which was understood to mean eternal by Jesus' contemporaries.
This is Greek and Jesus spoke Aramaic.
We have no proof that these things were spoken by Jesus as presented and this is all Here-say.
Believe in Hell if you wish whether a day or eternal it is all BS.
Illusions and myths spun by the priest caste to keep the rabble in line.
Doctrines of wind with no meaning or value.
In which case your whole argument, and testimony, is wasted.WHY I DON'T BELIEVE IN "FREE WILL"
In which case your whole argument, and testimony, is wasted.
"Then Jesus lifting up himself, said to her: Woman, where are they that accused thee? Hath no man condemned thee? Who said: No man, Lord. And Jesus said: Neither will I condemn thee. Go, and now sin no more."
By your definition, Jesus is equally mistaken, as the woman cannot help herself but do what she does. It's a waste of His time talking to her, indeed it's a waste of His time talking to anyone.
If man does not have free will, then he will perform as programmed, in which case it's pointless preaching to him, and your testimony is meaningless.
I might also add, that if man does not possess free will, then he cannot sin.
Therefore your god is punishing man for what he cannot help but be, a bit like me kicking a dog for having four legs.
Did Jesus have a free will?
Jesus had a will alright, but the will of Jesus was bound to do our Father's will.
"I can of my own self do nothing. As I hear, I judge, and my judgment is just; because I seek not my own will but the will of the Father Who sent me. John 5:30
"nevertheless not what I will, but what You will" Mark 14:36
Doing our Father's will was the strongest influence in the life of Jesus.
Could He have disobeyed the Father's will if He wanted to?
Jesus answered that question Himself when He said "I can of my own self do nothing."
Since the strongest influence in the life of Jesus was to do the Father's will it was not even possible for Him to want to disobey His Father.
The idea that the choice of Jesus would have no moral value if He was not able to disobey His Father is merely an ethical opinion that is rendered irrelevant by the fact that Jesus always had to respond to the strongest influence in His life.
Neither personhood nor morality is diminished by the existence of causality.
If I were operating a crane and lifting thousands of pounds of equipment in the air to the top of a ten story building.Jesus answered that question Himself when He said "I can of my own self do nothing."
So Jesus had no free will.
Yet when His mother asked Him to change water into wine, He replied, "Woman, what have I to do with thee, mine hour has not yet come" (John 2:4). Seeing that it is the Father's time that is in question, He was obviously influenced by His mother to perform this task, and He granted her. Here is an instance where He wasn't ready to reveal Himself as a worker of miracles, but His mother overrid Him, and presumable the Father as well.
If I were operating a crane and lifting thousands of pounds of equipment in the air to the top of a ten story building.
When someone thanked me for doing it I could easily say..."I can of my own self do nothing."
Doesn't mean I don't have free will.
Same with my Christian beliefs. While I believe G!d can only do for us what G!d can do thru us, and that all that I have, all that I hold, all comes from G!d again that doesn't detract from free will.
Now it is in my belief system that there is one thing I cannot avoid...I can procrastinate, I can postpone....but I will eventually return to spirit. That doesn't keep me from finding my own path along the way.
Rodgutt, the Bible is full of instances of people's faith being awakened or revitalised by a simple word or action ... but it is equally full of cases where it is lost.Along with the admonition of Jesus to the woman to "sin no more," He no doubt imparted to her the desire and determination to obey Him.
Rodgertutt, Apparently Jesus could not imparted the desire and determination to obey Him to the rich young man (Mark 10:17), a man whom Jesus loved, but who could not give up his worldly possessions ...
and likewise when Jesus preached the Bread of Life discourse (John 6) so many of His disciples left Him, that he even asked the Twelve, "will you also go away?" (6:68).
My point is God does not brainwash. What would be the point of that?
The Father used Mary's insistance to make Jesus realize that His hour had indeed come, and realizing at that moment that His hour had in fact come He granted Mary's request recognizing that it was in fact His Father's will.
Jesus's will responded to the strongest influence which was His newly discovered conviction that His hour had indeed come.
So essentially you are saying that Jesus was wrong.
Did Jesus really need His mother's insistance though? Was Mary in tighter with the Father than Jesus was?