The Greeks wrote the bible

Postmaster

Well-Known Member
Messages
2,312
Reaction score
3
Points
0
How different is the western version of the bible to the original Greek New Testament?


After reading this, I want to know what else seems to have been misinterpreted?


My study of the Bible and reflection on the philosophy of Jesus has led me to become a Christian Universalist. I believe that the love of God never permanently abandons any soul, and hell is only a temporary, purging fire (a just punishment of some sort that fits the deeds and needs of each individual) rather than an eternal vindictive torture. I believe this view is actually supported by the original Greek New Testament, and that the concept of eternal damnation is an unfortunate deviation from the good news of the essential Christian Gospel.
 
Nice to see you around, Postmaster - I had wondered where you've been. :)

As for the passage - really, it's all down to *interpretation*. The entire New Testament I believe was originally written down in Ancient Greek, so anything else is simply translation.

My impression of the Early Church, though, is that Universalism was not particularly practiced, though it's developed through the Quakers and of course the Unitarian and Universalist churches, which have since joined together as a single body.

In other words, your friends seems to be making a personal interpretation, nothing more.

Hope that helps. :)
 
Hey Brian, took a bit of time offline, also yesturday I decided to pack up my site. Been busy just enjoying myself these past months.

Thanks for the reply.
 
It was my understanding that books which were selected for the new testament were written in various languages, Hebrew, Aramaic, and Greek and translated to Greek when they were compiled. There are many at work today translating from Aramaic and correcting/revising the translations of the past.

Like the last words of Jesus, not why have you forsaken me, but 'is this what you saved me for'. And Jesus referring informally more like Daddy, than Father when he referred to God, not using the formal paternal form.

Then of course the whole eye of the needle concept...no one was referring to a camel or a rich man going through a sewing needle.... it is really such fun to see how contorted our view has become by using current concepts and/or ancient mistranslations as gospel.

Another fun one is the word sin, a Greek archery term which means, to miss the target, to not hit what you are aiming at. Gotta love it.

namaste,
 
Postmaster said:
How different is the western version of the bible to the original Greek New Testament?


After reading this, I want to know what else seems to have been misinterpreted?
Hell is mankinds common Grave , Jesus did not teach hellfire and torture but he taught total destruction for the wicked ones, big difference between the two things ,i find THE NEW WORLD TRANSLATION OF THE GREEK SCRIPTURES to be a good translation because it does not cloud the thought with traditions of men ,but gets back to the original thought
 
Universalism. Everyone will ultimatelty be saved ? This is not what the bible teaches. What has been misinterpreted ? Apart from deviating from the way God works, the idea about the so called scriptural hell is wrong. It is a mistranslation, more like a deliberate deviation from the scriptural truth. A concept created to keep the populace in check. The word 'Haides (Greek) that corresponds to sheol' (Hebrew) only means a grave. There is no such place as hell, many scriptures contradict this concept of an eternal fiery persecution.

Postmaster: Your quote...

How different is the western version of the bible to the original Greek New Testament?


I'm sure that you know this. The Greeks wrote the NT in koine Greek, but the OT was written in Hebrew, and the OT was translated to Greek. The difference from the original Greek, transliterated to English, can be quite controversial. Resulting in multiple differences spread across the many bible translations available.



The 'a priori' theology of the translator designates the big differences that result in their translation. Example: As there was no punctuation in the original koine Greek language, the comma is put where the translator decides to put it in English. Swayed by theological views? Taking note of the context of the rest of the scriptures, or not taking note of the context ?
A case in point is the positioning of the comma...in Luke 23:43....

Greek:
"Kai lego autos amen su lego semeron meta ego eimi en ho paradeios".

Word for word English :
"And He-aid to-Him amen to-you I am saying today with me you shall be in the park".

English syntax and grammar:
"Truly I say to you today, you will be with me in paradise.


Put the comma after the first you, and you get a completely different concept of the sentence. This will either suit those that believe on that very day the other 'criminal' on the stake would be with Jesus in paradise, or that Jesus was making a statement to the criminal on that day....Telling Him today, but later He will be with Him in paradise. ( As Jesus didn't reach paradise on that day, I've put the comma after the today.)...Easy really.


The only way is to get an indepth look at the whole bible, in which scholars of both Greek and Hebrew attempt to do. However we are all human and we all have our own theological ideas, so accuracy is at risk by being shifted by the minds of imperfect humans. This is not to say that the truth cannot be found in the bible. It is there. One truth. Which ever way you look at it, It is Gods inspired word, the original language has the truth in it.

2 Timothy 3:16,17 : "All scripture is inspired of God and beneficial. We just have to seek and find, then translate correctly by referencing the whole bible.

 
2 Timothy 3:16,17 : "All scripture is inspired of God and beneficial.
Scripture.... 1. A sacred writing or book.. 2. A passage from such a writing or book.
We just have to seek and find, then translate correctly by referencing the whole bible.
ah yes, and all scripture, we never know where, when or who God is speaking through. Everyone writes from their perspective of enlightenment which is then edited first by them, and then by others...and then the perspective of the reader....

Yes moving that comma or even period around....even tougher without vowels, eh?

namaste,
 
Postmaster said:
How different is the western version of the bible to the original Greek New Testament?


After reading this, I want to know what else seems to have been misinterpreted?

that particular doctrine on hell is true & i agree with them. however they use it to support that there is no such thing as lake of fire which is different. it would also imply that any & everyone can do as they please and bypass the judgments that Jesus taught. it also makes people think they can ignore the commandments, fail to repent & completely live an immoral ungdoly life including those who blaspheme God and still be presented as holy and blameless.

if this is true there is no point in Calvary, faith in God, the commandments or even trying to live & love one another. they also do not believe in free will and that everyone is like a robot just, puppets on strings.
i might add the Universalist does just as much finger pointing as the fundies.
the ones i ran into for a couple of months were not exactly what i call loving people and I found them to be just as critical about others.
it leans more toward a Zen/new age and mix of doctrine from many religions turning the bible into mostly metaphor like nothing more than reading the news paper.
there are no creeds & the sacraments are not adhered to.
there has always been a conflict there between the UU & the trinitarians concerning Jesus and it goes all the way back to 325, maybe earlier.

that is in short, my observation.:)
 
wil said:
It was my understanding that books which were selected for the new testament were written in various languages, Hebrew, Aramaic, and Greek and translated to Greek when they were compiled. There are many at work today translating from Aramaic and correcting/revising the translations of the past.

Like the last words of Jesus, not why have you forsaken me, but 'is this what you saved me for'. And Jesus referring informally more like Daddy, than Father when he referred to God, not using the formal paternal form.

Then of course the whole eye of the needle concept...no one was referring to a camel or a rich man going through a sewing needle.... it is really such fun to see how contorted our view has become by using current concepts and/or ancient mistranslations as gospel.

Another fun one is the word sin, a Greek archery term which means, to miss the target, to not hit what you are aiming at. Gotta love it.

namaste,

The story of the needle, is about a camel passing through it, and the dificulty that a camel laden with goods has trying to pass through the needle (a very small doorway in the city wall, thus giving greater security to the city). Most people that have studied the scripture are quite aware of this.

The term sin, means to be out of balance, or off the mark, besides the literal translation. Kind of like seeing red...

I would like to learn where you received the translation of Jesus' last words as noted above, and in what language...

Just as you have pointed out, words can take on different meanings depending upon who is using them and when they were spoken or written (the culture using them).

Jesus used the intimate form of father, not the formal form, and did so for good reason...;) If I recall, we are told that unless we come to the father like children, we aren't going to get there. No wonder He called the Father Abba, or "Daddy". It was suiting.

v/r

Q
 
Last edited:
Wil...Your Quote:
"Like the last words of Jesus, not why have you forsaken me, but 'is this what you saved me for".


Where did you get that translation from ? I wouldn't believe those bias anti-biblical websites. They give half baked truths.....Hard to stomach, like half baked bread.


Look at the original the words: Jesus cried out...
"E´li, E´li, la´ma sa·bach·tha´ni ?"
A mixture of Hebrew and Aramaic "My God, my God, (Hebrew) why have you forsaken me?" (Aramaic)


Or transliterated Greek to English exactly as:
"God of me, (theos ego) God of me,(theos ego) that (hina) any/why (tis) of me (ego) you abandoned. (egkataleipo.)".....

Quite honestly this cannot be translated as: 'Is this what you saved me for'.


To get the real meaning, they were a near repetition of the words in Psalms 22:1. It has been said that these words of Jesus, (whilst he was in great pain) was a fulfillment of this scripture. This prophetic outcry also identified Jesus as the Christ, the Messiah of God.


Your quote:
"And Jesus referring informally more like Daddy, than Father when he referred to God, not using the formal paternal form".


Who's the Daddy...You've got a point there ! It was, and still is a close Father to son relationship.

Did you get this idea from the the term Abba ? This was the intimate name used by children for their fathers, an Aramaic word that appears only three times in the Scriptures. Each time the term is followed immediately by the translation 'ho pa·ter' in Greek, which literally means "the father" In each case it is used with reference to the heavenly Father, Jehovah. Other than that, the Greek word Pater ...(Father) or Hebrew Av (Father) is used....By far more formal usages in the scriptures than 'Daddy'.


Your quote:
"Then of course the whole eye of the needle concept...no one was referring to a camel or a rich man going through a sewing needle.... it is really such fun to see how contorted our view has become by using current concepts and/or ancient mistranslations as gospel".


Sorry, but this idea is pure conjecture ! Matthews scripture has a clear cut meaning, although figurative, its meant to be understood in the same way that Jesus used semi-figurative illustrations by observations such as how he condemned the hypocritical Pharisees, Jesus spoke of their ‘straining out the gnat but swallowing the camel.’ Those men used to strain out the gnat from their wine, not merely because it was ceremonially unclean; yet they figuratively gulped down camels, which were also unclean. The people at the time knew what Jesus was saying.The religious leaders were sticklers for little things, However, they disregarded the greater matters of the Law. He spoke on their terms. Camels, Gnats, wine and sewing needles. It can also be clearly understood today.


' Through the eye of the needle ' illustrates that Jesus definately meant that it was going to be extremely difficult for those with wealth to get to the kingdom of God, because of the minds of those that put faith in material things above spiritual things....This is in line with. Luke 13:24 "Exert yourselves vigorously to get in through the narrow door, because many, I tell you, will seek to get in but will not be able.


Your quote:
"Another fun one is the word sin, a Greek archery term which means, to miss the target, to not hit what you are aiming at. Gotta love it".


Regarding sin...Hebrew: "sin" is chattath...corresponding to the Greek sin ha·mar·ti´a. The verb forms mean "miss," in the sense of missing or not reaching the goal etc. It is true that the Greek word for sin can relate to missing a target, in relation to something physical, but only rarely, and not specifically archery. (It has been used to refer to spear throwing.) It mainly refers to moral matters. Its meaning is variable, like many words in Greek and Hebrew, they have loose and alternative meanings, and can be applied to different notions. The same with many English words.

They did not only mean to miss in a physical sense, but by far,its meaning is in a moral sense. Long before Greek archery....Proverbs 8:35, 36 says the one finding godly wisdom finds life, but the ‘one missing [from Hebrew...chata] wisdom is doing violence to his soul,

’ Missing ' in the Scriptures, both in the Hebrew and Greek terms refer mainly to sinning on their missing the mark with regard to the Creator. Missing the goal of doing the right from doing wrong that Jehovah God puts before us is sin. Hence sin, immoral sin corresponds with the terms from Greek and Hebrew, Chattath and Hamartia and is used appropriately in the bible.


Your quote:
"ah yes, and all scripture, we never know where, when or who God is speaking through. Everyone writes from their perspective of enlightenment which is then edited first by them, and then by others...and then the perspective of the reader"....


To a point. Only by going to the original languages used can you source the original meaning. Scholars of each individual language are the ones that do this. Take your pick as to which translation fits the correct theological context of the scriptures...By study. You are then very near to getting the truth.


Your quote:
"Yes moving that comma or even period around....even tougher without vowels, eh"?


Not really... Hebrew (without vowels) was successfully translated to Greek, and The OT Hebrew was translated to English etc. without losing the meaning. It requires careful understanding of the original language to do so though.


The bible passages have meaning, but can be easily belittled. We have to be careful that we don't end up acting like the Pharisees...Straining out the gnat. Picking at little things without looking at the greater meaning.



 
E99 said:





Regarding sin...Hebrew: "sin" is chattath...corresponding to the Greek sin ha·mar·ti´a. The verb forms mean "miss," in the sense of missing or not reaching the goal etc. It is true that the Greek word for sin can relate to missing a target, in relation to something physical, but only rarely, and not specifically archery. (It has been used to refer to spear throwing.) It mainly refers to moral matters. Its meaning is variable, like many words in Greek and Hebrew, they have loose and alternative meanings, and can be applied to different notions. The same with many English words.

They did not only mean to miss in a physical sense, but by far,its meaning is in a moral sense. Long before Greek archery....Proverbs 8:35, 36 says the one finding godly wisdom finds life, but the ‘one missing [from Hebrew...chata] wisdom is doing violence to his soul,

’ Missing ' in the Scriptures, both in the Hebrew and Greek terms refer mainly to sinning on their missing the mark with regard to the Creator. Missing the goal of doing the right from doing wrong that Jehovah God puts before us is sin. Hence sin, immoral sin corresponds with the terms from Greek and Hebrew, Chattath and Hamartia and is used appropriately in the bible.





Hi E99:)
just wanted to say you did a nice job with that post.

the other thing about the ones who talk of sin like it is a dart board game,,,they dont know that when sin has conceived it brings forth death AND disobedience is also classified as sin.
i guess that may be why so many dont like the bible today because it has the wisdom of God for us, & information on how to obtain eternal life & they choose something different.
 
I'll have to look up references for the translations, I know I read them by more than one aramaic scholar...I personally am not.

as for Abba don't you think the three times are significant? And don't you think it interesting the greek translators felt compelled to revise daddy to father?

as for the eye of the needle...as I understand it the eye of the needle was the smaller gates into walled cities. A person could walk through, a camel was able to crawl through, however a rich man, one with many loaded camels and men, would have to go to the main gate, and have the large doors opened or remove all the baggage (material beliefs)....

the needle's eye was also referred to the smaller door inside a larger door at the main gate....again only the 'eye' would be open to protect the city or in this case heaven...

Greeks wrote the Bilbe, Catholics cannonized it and shuffled the old testament, so there is nothing to be learned from other sources? Even older more complete texts found at Nag Hamadi, or Dead Sea Caves? Once that group of men organized by a pagan leader voted...we are stuck with what was then? (accept of course for the results from later councils votes, arguments and fisticuffs)

I think the book is great, I have a number of copies...so there is always one near at hand to refer to. Course I keep my drivers manual in the glove box too, often in life I need other references....and thank God for them as well.

namaste,
 
wil said:
I'll have to look up references for the translations, I know I read them by more than one aramaic scholar...I personally am not.

as for Abba don't you think the three times are significant? And don't you think it interesting the greek translators felt compelled to revise daddy to father?

as for the eye of the needle...as I understand it the eye of the needle was the smaller gates into walled cities. A person could walk through, a camel was able to crawl through, however a rich man, one with many loaded camels and men, would have to go to the main gate, and have the large doors opened or remove all the baggage (material beliefs)....

the needle's eye was also referred to the smaller door inside a larger door at the main gate....again only the 'eye' would be open to protect the city or in this case heaven...

Greeks wrote the Bilbe, Catholics cannonized it and shuffled the old testament, so there is nothing to be learned from other sources? Even older more complete texts found at Nag Hamadi, or Dead Sea Caves? Once that group of men organized by a pagan leader voted...we are stuck with what was then? (accept of course for the results from later councils votes, arguments and fisticuffs)

I think the book is great, I have a number of copies...so there is always one near at hand to refer to. Course I keep my drivers manual in the glove box too, often in life I need other references....and thank God for them as well.

namaste,

The Pentateuch, was written by the Hebrews, and was later translated originally for Greek speaking Jews. Those five books were written between 1400-200 BC. Besides the cannonized version of the Bible there still remains the Apocrypha, which are available for anyone to research. If you are referring to Constatine as being the Pagan leader, well, anyone not Jewish is gentile, which means the rest of us are of Pagan origins. And there are other resources to choose from, such as the Torah, the Etheopian and Coptic versions of the Bible.

I do not think you will find much in Aramaic as to what Jesus said, as it was not a story that appears to have been translated. The consensus is that it was originally written in Greek. So any Aramaic translation you may have found was done after the original was written. That in and of itself would make such translation suspect.

As for "shuffling" the old testament around, the Catholic church is not the only one guilty. It was done again by the Protestant churches as well. Much of the wording was changed at the time of Martin Luther, and again in the 19th and 20th centuries, which is why we have so many versions of the Bible today.

v/r

Q
 
Kindest Regards all!

If I may chime in with an observation, I suspect the difficulty is in confusing the Greek language with the Greek people. Using the same reasoning, one could say that the US Constitution is English because it is written in English. Or that Brazilians are Portuguese, or Mexicans are Spanish. Heritage aside, it is unreasonable to think in this manner because these things are evidently not so.

Speaking as a student, and certainly not a deep scholar on the subject, it is my understanding the Old Testament was written in ancient Hebrew, with the exception of a portion of Daniel written in Chaldee. Any Greek translation of the Old Testament, such as the Septuigent, is a translation of the Old Hebrew.

As for the New Testament, Greek was the language of commerce and scholarship in the region at the time the NT was composed. Greek would have been the language of learned people, and the Jews of Palestine up to the era of the sack of Jerusalem by Rome had an opportunity among the middle classes to become learned, more so it would seem than say Europe a thousand years later. Whether originally composed in Greek or Aramaic it almost irrelevent, the Greek is what survived in the West to eventually be translated into English. I understand the Peshitta (Aramaic version) to be the translation of choice among some Eastern sects, and to be at least one version used by the Greek Orthodox church which existed in Byzantine times in Palestine. Latin, as in the Vulgate, also played a role in the history of the Christian church in the West. Any way one chooses to cut this matter, there are no "original" texts extant, the oldest known complete set being that in the British Museum (400 AD +/-) and used in 1611 to translate into the English KJV. If Rome holds any that are older, they are not allowing scholars access. The oldest known complete book I am aware of is a copy of Isaiah found among the Dead Sea scrolls (100 BC +/-), and various fragments of other OT books. The DS scrolls have no direct bearing on any NT books.

Because the NT was written in Greek, does not mean Greeks wrote the NT.
 
juantoo3 said:
Indeed, and this is a bugaboo for translators always.

Such as:

"Spare the rod, spoil the child." or, "Spare the rod. Spoil the child."

Spare the rod, spoil the child. Trust me, this is the right translation. Take care of your kid now, and he or she will take care of you later. At least they will call you sir, and mean it. And when you least expect it, they come around to help you, over and over again. And they keep calling you sir...

v/r

Q
 
Kindest Regards, Q!
Quahom1 said:
Spare the rod, spoil the child. Trust me, this is the right translation. Take care of your kid now, and he or she will take care of you later. At least they will call you sir, and mean it. And when you least expect it, they come around to help you, over and over again. And they keep calling you sir...
While I agree with you, the point was about translation. Incredible as it may seem, I have also heard people try to translate this the other way as well (with all that implies with application).

So, translation is a sticky affair any way one looks at it, unless one is intimately familiar with both languages. Seldom seen, but not unheard of.

Scholarship has its limits. In the final analysis, common sense must prevail.
 
Quahom1 said:
Spare the rod, spoil the child. Trust me, this is the right translation. Take care of your kid now, and he or she will take care of you later. At least they will call you sir, and mean it. And when you least expect it, they come around to help you, over and over again. And they keep calling you sir...

v/r

Q

I have never had to use violence with my children and I have more than thier respect I have thier Love. And if either of them ever calls me 'sir' I will weep before them. My children help because they love not because they are servants. Our job as parents is to nurture and set free thier minds not to enslave them.
 
Tao_Equus said:
I have never had to use violence with my children and I have more than thier respect I have thier Love. And if either of them ever calls me 'sir' I will weep before them. My children help because they love not because they are servants. Our job as parents is to nurture and set free thier minds not to enslave them.

The "Rod" is not neccessarily physical...it is always however, a state of mind. Nurturing includes discipline, and dscipline implies with love and tolerance. It works. I have two that I am most proud of out there in the world. And they are doing fine. (In fact they serve you).

v/r

Q
 
Back
Top