Thanks, Ahanu, for the considered reply.
Your comments in blue, mine black, quotes are texts you cite.
"Moreover, in certain passages of the Sacred Scriptures where allusion is made to the Spirit, a specific person is intended, as it is conventionally said in speech and conversation that such-and-such a person is spirit personified, or is the embodiment of mercy and generosity. In this case the focus is not upon the lamp but upon the light."
In principle I agree with that. The Holy Spirit acts in, with and through persons and, of a Celtic inclination, perhaps through nature as well.
At the Council of Chalcedon in 451, Pope Leo sought to heal the rift in the church in a letter to Bishop Flavian of Constantinople, stating what he saw as the orthodox position on the question of the two natures in Christ. When the letter was read to the bishops, they are recorded as having responded: "This is the faith of the fathers! This is the faith of the Apostles! So we all believe! Thus the Orthodox believe! Anathema to him who does not thus believe! Peter has spoken thus through Leo!”
That last sentence, 'Peter has spoken through Leo' is read to infer the Holy Spirit speaks through the Office of Peter in the person of Leo, the current Pope. (Papal infallibility is only ever endorsed when the pope speaks
ex cathedra, as we say, in the Office of Peter, or from the Seat of Peter,but it is the Holy Spirit who speaks.)
I think we see similar concepts in the Gospels:
"King Herod heard of this ... (Mark 6.14-15).
Well I'll leave
@RabbiO to speak regarding Jewish beliefs in reincarnation, but the way I see it is John the Baptist fulfilled a vocation, as did Elijah, as did the prophets generally, and the assumption is Jesus follows in that line, all inspired by the Holy Spirit.
Here we have this idea Jesus is Elijah according to "some" Jews. But in what sense? Now what did these "others" here think when they said Jesus is Elijah? The text doesn't go into detail. Like usual, the writer leaves it up to the reader or listener to decide. There seems to be an assumed cultural code us moderns are not privy to in this depicted scene.
Again, I'm sure
@RabbiO could offer more on this topic from the Jewish perspective.
For my own part, I think Luke 1:13-21 has the answer. An angel appears to the priest Zachariah while serving in the Temple. The angel says:
"Fear not, Zacharias: for thy prayer is heard; and thy wife Elisabeth shall bear thee a son, and thou shalt call his name John ... he shall be filled with the Holy Ghost, even from his mother's womb ... And he shall go before him in the spirit and power of Elias to turn the hearts of the fathers to the children, and the disobedient ‖‖ Or,
by. to the wisdom of the just; to make ready a people prepared for the Lord."
Here then is a ready explanation. The Holy Spirit was with Elijah, and will be with John, and their mission will be the same, to turn people away from sin (Elijah to destroy the altar erected to the pagan god Baal, John to lead people toward Jesus).
Again, I see in principle no problem with what Abdu'l-Baha said – we're speaking of the Holy Spirit working through individuals.
So when the spirit of Elijah manifested itself, it was made manifest through John's "perfections" and "attributes." Could the case be similar with others that said Jesus is Elijah?
Similar, but not the same.
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"Then God said, 'Let there be light,' and there was light." I still don't imagine a disembodied voice - in English, Hebrew, or whatever - filling the void and saying that aloud.
Nor do I.
I am not saying God has a body - just saying God speaks through people.
Yes.
Again, consider the following verse in Mark 12.36 for a simple example:
"David himself says by/in/with the Holy Spirit: The Lord declared to my Lord, ‘Sit at My right hand until I put Your enemies under Your feet.'"
Why does David himself say anything by/in/with the Holy Spirit if he himself is an unnecessary conduit?
This is a reference to Psalm 110. Mark is making the point that the Psalms are believed to have been penned under the influence of the Holy Spirit, and David the human scribe.
What's an angel?
Ha! Well that's a big question. St Thomas considers them pure intellectual creatures.
Interestingly, in Luke 1:19 we read "And the angel answering, said to him: I am Gabriel, who stand before God: and am sent to speak to thee, and to bring thee these good tidings." This suggests self-identification 'Gabriel' which ticks the Boethian definition of a 'person': "an intellectual substance of a rational nature."
Scripture says a lot about angels – St Thomas wrote loads, he is called 'The Angelic Doctor', and not just for his good looks!
The idea Christians faithfully keep scriptural language to a tee is nonsense.
Depends which. Catholics and Orthodox are not Biblical literalists, nor believers in Biblical inerrancy.
No professional Christian in the field of medical science speaks of disembodied spirits possessing someone.
Probably not, when speaking in a professional capacity. Privately they might hold another opinion?
Despite demonic possession in the Gospels, I do not hear you talking about demonic possession today when referring to psychological trauma and the like (as they would have been spoken of 2,000 years ago).
Nevertheless, I don't exclude it, not can I logically discount it. I just don't have any experience in that field. Thank God.
My point is that Christians transform scriptural language into conversational language all the time whether they realize it or not.
Well that's somewhat a generalisation, so you will understand if I say I cannot comment.
Our understanding of our own consciousness has evolved tremendously since the Gospels were first written. No need to exchange inner realities for external ones like the ancient Greeks did with their gods.
No, but in analogous terms they are still very useful. And those external realities might very well be ... realities.