Recently on another message board somebody reposted a story about a woman who had apparently been tried for the "undefined crime of witchcraft" and convicted based on nothing more than "written statements of witnesses who said that she had bewitched them. " Here's the story: BBC NEWS | Middle East | Pleas for condemned Saudi 'witch' Including this story in a thread that is supposedly dedicated to the religion of Islam (Title= "Religion Of Peace Update" ) would seem to suggest that the way this alleged "witchcraft" case was handled is typical of the Islamic world in general and presumably reflects on Islamic doctrine and ideas about justice. The "witchcraft" case may or may not reflect on Saudi Arabia's interpretation of Islamic law. To credibly suggest that it does would require a fairly good knowledge of Islamic law. In order to make the case, wouldn't one need to cite a specific law that deals with the prosecution of witchcraft? The post in question doesn't get into that at all. It is just a repost of the barebones BBC story, with nothing in the way of analysis. It's as though the idea is to leave it open for readers to conclude that the Saudi way of doing things is pretty much the norm in the Muslim world. I'd say it's a stretch to suggest that the Saudi legal system in general or that its handling of this case in particular reflects directly on Islamic doctrine and jurisprudence. At face value, isn't it like insinuating that Islam is generally misogynistic and arbitrary as far as convicting people on bogus Nonesuch crimes? In other words, the way the article is presented is suspect from the getgo. As far as I know, Muslims countries vary widely with regard to the death penalty. Many have a de facto ban on it. Is fair for someone to insinuate normativeness regarding Islam based on nothing more than a single case of something that came to pass in one of the most extreme fundamentalist Islamic states ? Again, the BBC story is simply reposted without analysis and without any attempt to provide some context or perspective in a thread that's supposedly devoted to Islam. The analogy would be for me to start a thread called "Gospel of Jesus" and then start plugging in stories about weird fringe "Christian" groups who burn Harry Potter books by the thousands or run disciplinary "Christian bootcamps" that practice child abuse. Such juxtapositions are obviously misleading as a basis for inferences about the Gospel of forgiveness and salvation or as a basis for generalization about Christianity and Christians in general. One might say it's a "smear" of sorts. Basically, it's presenting a news story in a certain context (a thread supposedly about Islam - or so says the title) in order to shape people's conclusions about that story. As such, it would appear to be a kind of devious form of propaganda that uses argument by implication. IMHO, the suggestion that Saudi practices are typical for the Islamic world is highly questionable. What do you think? Please discuss.